The scattering abroad likely took place after Stephen was stoned, which placed James being written after Acts 8, and before the Council event in Acts 15.
The way James wrote his letter, it is highly unlikely that James have even heard of Paul's conversion, hence was not aware of the mysteries that the ascended Christ revealed to Paul.
It is just that, James being placed after Paul's epistles, gave many Christians the impression that James must have already read and understood everything that was stated in Romans-Philemon, before writing his own epistle.
This gives rise to all the attempts trying to force James to agree with Paul.
The way James wrote his letter, it is highly unlikely that James have even heard of Paul's conversion, hence was not aware of the mysteries that the ascended Christ revealed to Paul.
It is just that, James being placed after Paul's epistles, gave many Christians the impression that James must have already read and understood everything that was stated in Romans-Philemon, before writing his own epistle.
This gives rise to all the attempts trying to force James to agree with Paul.
I agree that James was written before Paul’s epistles, but why has it been placed after Paul’s epistles and the book of Hebrews? Could it be that the audience is Jews after the rapture, in the tribulation? Have you read my posts showing this to be the case?