BEWARE OF "BIBLICAL" HERETICS AND CULTISTS

[Nehemiah6]

Why is the word homosexual not found in the KJB? But found in other versions?

And why is this of any consequence? However, the simple answer is that the KJV was a 17th century translation, when the word homosexual had not even been coined . But the Bible does use the term "Sodomite" and that has been the equivalent of "homosexual" for hundreds of years. For their own reasons, the KJV translators did not use this translation, but explicated the meaning of arsenonkoites.

But let's look at the actual words in the Greek and English:

1 Cor 6:9
ἢ οὐκ οἴδατε ὅτι ἄδικοι βασιλείαν Θεοῦ οὐ κληρονομήσουσι; μὴ πλανᾶσθε· οὔτε πόρνοι, οὔτε εἰδωλολάτραι, οὔτε μοιχοὶ, οὔτε μαλακοὶ, οὔτε ἀρσενοκοῖται,

Strong's Concordance

arsenokoités: a sodomite​

Transliteration: arsenokoités
Short Definition: homosexuals

King James Bible
Know ye not that the unrighteous shall not inherit the kingdom of God? Be not deceived: neither fornicators, nor idolaters, nor adulterers, nor effeminate, nor abusers of themselves with mankind,

One could say that the KJV translators could have used the term "Sodomite" but chose to make it clearer by what they said.

Again in 1 Timothy 1:10 they chose not to use the term "Sodomite".
πόρνοις, ἀρσενοκοίταις, ἀνδραποδισταῖς, ψεύσταις, ἐπιόρκοις, καὶ εἴ τι ἕτερον τῇ ὑγιαινούσῃ διδασκαλίᾳ ἀντίκειται,

King James Bible
For whoremongers, for them that defile themselves with mankind, for menstealers, for liars, for perjured persons, and if there be any other thing that is contrary to sound doctrine;

The only people who have made this an issue is the homosexual community. The terminology in the KJV leaves no room for doubt that it is in fact sodomy that is a sin.

 

[dalok6800]

And why is this of any consequence? However, the simple answer is that the KJV was a 17th century translation, when the word homosexual had not even been coined . But the Bible does use the term "Sodomite" and that has been the equivalent of "homosexual" for hundreds of years. For their own reasons, the KJV translators did not use this translation, but explicated the meaning of arsenonkoites.

But let's look at the actual words in the Greek and English:

1 Cor 6:9
ἢ οὐκ οἴδατε ὅτι ἄδικοι βασιλείαν Θεοῦ οὐ κληρονομήσουσι; μὴ πλανᾶσθε· οὔτε πόρνοι, οὔτε εἰδωλολάτραι, οὔτε μοιχοὶ, οὔτε μαλακοὶ, οὔτε ἀρσενοκοῖται,

Strong's Concordance

arsenokoités: a sodomite​

Transliteration: arsenokoités
Short Definition: homosexuals

King James Bible
Know ye not that the unrighteous shall not inherit the kingdom of God? Be not deceived: neither fornicators, nor idolaters, nor adulterers, nor effeminate, nor abusers of themselves with mankind,

One could say that the KJV translators could have used the term "Sodomite" but chose to make it clearer by what they said.

Again in 1 Timothy 1:10 they chose not to use the term "Sodomite".
πόρνοις, ἀρσενοκοίταις, ἀνδραποδισταῖς, ψεύσταις, ἐπιόρκοις, καὶ εἴ τι ἕτερον τῇ ὑγιαινούσῃ διδασκαλίᾳ ἀντίκειται,

King James Bible
For whoremongers, for them that defile themselves with mankind, for menstealers, for liars, for perjured persons, and if there be any other thing that is contrary to sound doctrine;

The only people who have made this an issue is the homosexual community. The terminology in the KJV leaves no room for doubt that it is in fact sodomy that is a sin.

Do you go around telling homosexuals :
you are abusers of yourself with mankind,
you are of them that defile themselves with mankind

I would bet you do not.

 

[Nehemiah6]

Do you go around telling homosexuals :
you are abusers of yourself with mankind,
you are of them that defile themselves with mankind
I would bet you do not.

I certainly do not, and neither should any Christian. What homosexuals do privately is strictly their business. But if a homosexual walked up to me and asked "Is homosexuality a sin according to the Bible?" The answer would be "Absolutely. And all sinners -- regardless of their sins -- must repent and believe on the Lord Jesus Christ". BTW what is stated in the KJV is totally accurate and would be understood by anyone today.

Let's not forget that homosexuals are aggressively trying to muzzle Christians and pervert the laws of the land. That should be of greater concern than the terminology.

 

[dalok6800]

I certainly do not, and neither should any Christian. What homosexuals do privately is strictly their business. But if a homosexual walked up to me and asked "Is homosexuality a sin according to the Bible?" The answer would be "Absolutely. And all sinners -- regardless of their sins -- must repent and believe on the Lord Jesus Christ". BTW what is stated in the KJV is totally accurate and would be understood by anyone today.

Let's not forget that homosexuals are aggressively trying to muzzle Christians and pervert the laws of the land. That should be of greater concern than the terminology.

I agree with you.

 

[kiwikerry]

It would be very hard to make such a broad statement that the early church fathers were unanimously engrossed with anything. Their views like those in modern day Christianity were so varied that the only thing that said unanimously about them is that they believed in Jesus and in God.