Bible "versions"?

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throughfaith

Well-known member
#121
Aug 4, 2020
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#121
Dino246 said:
I respect your choice, though your reasoning wouldn't convince me. As you have described it here, it seems that you decided (or were convinced by someone) to start comparing other versions to the KJV instead of comparing all to the original-language texts.

Perhaps you could unpack your statement, "The context is where the modern translations fall apart."
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My point is that I used to hold to your position . So i was looking for the modern transja
Dino246 said:
Um... give what a try? Not showing evidence?
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I won't convince you . I was only convinced by the bible study I had . Maybe that would convince you the same ?
 
Dino246

Dino246

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#122
Jun 30, 2015
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#122
John146 said:
There is truth to be known in Luke 10:1. Did the Lord send out 70 or 72 as the new versions state?

1 After these things the Lord appointed other seventy also, and sent them two and two before his face into every city and place, whither he himself would come.

No major doctrine? How about the major doctrine in God's word is truth. How about the major doctrine that a faithful witness cannot lie?
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Do you want to discuss "major doctrines" or do you want to piddle around with inconsequential matters? I'm not wasting my time and energy on the latter, when all you will do is claim the KJV is correct without any supporting evidence. I've done that dance, thanks. Deal with your lack of integrity, and then we'll talk.
 
Dino246

Dino246

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#123
Jun 30, 2015
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#123
throughfaith said:
My point is that I used to hold to your position . So i was looking for the modern transja

I won't convince you . I was only convinced by the bible study I had . Maybe that would convince you the same ?
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I read several translations, the KJV is among them. I don't have any need to be stuck with only one.
 
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John146

Senior Member
#124
Jan 13, 2016
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#124
Dino246 said:
Do you want to discuss "major doctrines" or do you want to piddle around with inconsequential matters? I'm not wasting my time and energy on the latter, when all you will do is claim the KJV is correct without any supporting evidence. I've done that dance, thanks. Deal with your lack of integrity, and then we'll talk.
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The reliability of scripture is THE major doctrine.

So, which is it? 70 or 72? If you say 70 then all new versions lie. If you say 72 then the KJV is a lie. Which is it?
 
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throughfaith

Well-known member
#125
Aug 4, 2020
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#125
Dino246 said:
Um... give what a try? Not showing evidence?
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I now trust the bible . Before I couldn't really say I trusted any English Translation. I thought I had to learn Hebrew and Greek to REALLY understand the bible.
 
Dino246

Dino246

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#126
Jun 30, 2015
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#126
John146 said:
The reliability of scripture is THE major doctrine.

So, which is it? 70 or 72? If you say 70 then all new versions lie. If you say 72 then the KJV is a lie. Which is it?
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I have responded adequately already.
 
Dino246

Dino246

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#128
Jun 30, 2015
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#128
throughfaith said:
I now trust the bible . Before I couldn't really say I trusted any English Translation. I thought I had to learn Hebrew and Greek to REALLY understand the bible.
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That's good. :)
 
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John146

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#130
Jan 13, 2016
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#130
Dino246 said:
I have responded adequately already.
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Major doctrine...changing one word destroys the doctrine of the faith of Jesus Christ. Christ had faith, perfect faith even unto the death of the cross. The new versions switch the story around to man's faith justifies.

I am proud to say that Jesus Christ is the Just and the Justifier of them that believe!

Galatians 2:16

KJV 16 Knowing that a man is not justified by the works of the law, but by the faith of Jesus Christ, even we have believed in Jesus Christ, that we might be justified by the faith of Christ, and not by the works of the law: for by the works of the law shall no flesh be justified.

ESV 16 yet we know that a person is not justified by works of the law but through faith in Jesus Christ, so we also have believed in Christ Jesus, in order to be justified by faith in Christ and not by works of the law, because by works of the law no one will be justified.
 
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John146

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#131
Jan 13, 2016
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#131
John146 said:
so we also have believed in Christ Jesus, in order to be justified by faith in Christ
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Does this even make sense? We have believed in Christ in order to be justified by faith in Christ...????????????
 
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throughfaith

Well-known member
#132
Aug 4, 2020
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#132
John146 said:
Does this even make sense? We have believed in Christ in order to be justified by faith in Christ...????????????
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Thats a great point . I didn't notice that one .This is yet another time where the context makes no sense in the modern translations .
 
Dino246

Dino246

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#133
Jun 30, 2015
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#133
John146 said:
Major doctrine...changing one word destroys the doctrine of the faith of Jesus Christ. Christ had faith, perfect faith even unto the death of the cross. The new versions switch the story around to man's faith justifies.

I am proud to say that Jesus Christ is the Just and the Justifier of them that believe!

Galatians 2:16

KJV 16 Knowing that a man is not justified by the works of the law, but by the faith of Jesus Christ, even we have believed in Jesus Christ, that we might be justified by the faith of Christ, and not by the works of the law: for by the works of the law shall no flesh be justified.

ESV 16 yet we know that a person is not justified by works of the law but through faith in Jesus Christ, so we also have believed in Christ Jesus, in order to be justified by faith in Christ and not by works of the law, because by works of the law no one will be justified.
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Both are correct. The problem is you don't understand 16th-century English.

As I have explained before, with Scripture, "the faith of Jesus Christ" is the faith that people have in Jesus Christ, not the faith that Jesus exercises.

It's like saying "the religion of Islam" or "the government of England". It's not like saying, "the power of God".
 
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John146

Senior Member
#134
Jan 13, 2016
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#134
Dino246 said:
Both are correct. The problem is you don't understand 16th-century English.

As I have explained before, with Scripture, "the faith of Jesus Christ" is the faith that people have in Jesus Christ, not the faith that Jesus exercises.

It's like saying "the religion of Islam" or "the government of England". It's not like saying, "the power of God".
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Nice try....Christ had faith. Perfect faith. His faith justifies the believer.
 
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throughfaith

Well-known member
#135
Aug 4, 2020
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#135
Dino246 said:
Both are correct. The problem is you don't understand 16th-century English.

As I have explained before, with Scripture, "the faith of Jesus Christ" is the faith that people have in Jesus Christ, not the faith that Jesus exercises.

It's like saying "the religion of Islam" or "the government of England". It's not like saying, "the power of God".
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Again we need a bible corrector to straighten us out .
 
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John146

Senior Member
#137
Jan 13, 2016
17,128
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#137
Dino246 said:
Both are correct. The problem is you don't understand 16th-century English.

As I have explained before, with Scripture, "the faith of Jesus Christ" is the faith that people have in Jesus Christ, not the faith that Jesus exercises.

It's like saying "the religion of Islam" or "the government of England". It's not like saying, "the power of God".
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Romans 3
21 But now the righteousness of God without the law is manifested, being witnessed by the law and the prophets;
22 Even the righteousness of God which is by faith of Jesus Christ unto all and upon all them that believe: for there is no difference:

Did you see that? God's righteousness has been manifested. God's righteousness has been witnessed. God's righteousness is by faith of Jesus Christ unto all that believe. His faith justifies! Christ's faith is the righteousness of God! His perfect obedience was on full display from birth to death.
 
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Edify

Well-known member
#139
Jan 27, 2021
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#139
Just so everyone knows, both the Bishop's Bible & the KJV was edited by the Archbishop of Canterbury, who inserted the word "bishop" into the text to solidify his authority over the Church of England. And that's not all he did to it.
King James wanted to divorce his wife against the Catholic Church & the Archbishop wanted this second translation(KJV) done because the Bishop's Bible wasn't accepted over Tyndales, which was the most popular among the conservatives at the time.
So, no, the KJV isn't the most accurate version. Sorry.
 
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John146

Senior Member
#140
Jan 13, 2016
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#140
Edify said:
Just so everyone knows, both the Bishop's Bible & the KJV was edited by the Archbishop of Canterbury, who inserted the word "bishop" into the text to solidify his authority over the Church of England. And that's not all he did to it.
King James wanted to divorce his wife against the Catholic Church & the Archbishop wanted this second translation(KJV) done because the Bishop's Bible wasn't accepted over Tyndales, which was the most popular among the conservatives at the time.
So, no, the KJV isn't the most accurate version. Sorry.
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Since you were not there as a witness to all of this, what are your sources? Internet?:)
 
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