Bible "versions"?

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Apr 12, 2021
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I would say they used Easter because people could relate to Easter as opposed to passover and understand when it happened.
My point is, the manuscripts all say πάσχα (pascha), and this is the God-breathed word used by Luke, the writer of Acts.

Replacing the God-breathed word for another word just to make people happy or more comfortable when they read the passage is doing harm to the Word of God.

The same can be said of the word church. King James gave specific instructions to the translators not to translate the Greek ἐκκλησίαν (ekklēsian) to "assembly" or "called out ones" because James did not want the masses of Christians to believe they were on equal footing as he was as "King of England" and "Head of the Church". Human hubris did damage to God's word.
 

Dino246

Senior Member
Jun 30, 2015
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That wasn't 'you ' , that's who ( the scholar) we have to turn to to figure it out .
Did I quote a Bible scholar? No. I don't need to; the text is clear enough.
 

Dino246

Senior Member
Jun 30, 2015
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Romans 3
21 But now the righteousness of God without the law is manifested, being witnessed by the law and the prophets;
22 Even the righteousness of God which is by faith of Jesus Christ unto all and upon all them that believe: for there is no difference:

Did you see that? God's righteousness has been manifested. God's righteousness has been witnessed. God's righteousness is by faith of Jesus Christ unto all that believe. His faith justifies! Christ's faith is the righteousness of God! His perfect obedience was on full display from birth to death.
Who is (allegedly) justified by "Christ's faith"?

By what method is someone (allegedly) justified by "Christ's faith"?

What differentiates those who are (allegedly) justified by "Christ's faith" from those who aren't?
 
Apr 12, 2021
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There is truth to be known in Luke 10:1. Did the Lord send out 70 or 72 as the new versions state?

1 After these things the Lord appointed other seventy also, and sent them two and two before his face into every city and place, whither he himself would come.

No major doctrine? How about the major doctrine in God's word is truth. How about the major doctrine that a faithful witness cannot lie?
One more error the KJV committed was replacing the God-breathed word ekklesia (assembly or called out ones) with the word church.
 

John146

Senior Member
Jan 13, 2016
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Who is (allegedly) justified by "Christ's faith"?

By what method is someone (allegedly) justified by "Christ's faith"?

What differentiates those who are (allegedly) justified by "Christ's faith" from those who aren't?
Even we have believed in Jesus Christ that we might be justified by the faith of Jesus Christ. Believers!

Even the righteousness of God which is by faith of Jesus Christ unto all and upon all them that believe. Believers!

Man's part is to believe the testimony of Jesus Christ.
 

John146

Senior Member
Jan 13, 2016
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One more error the KJV committed was replacing the God-breathed word ekklesia (assembly or called out ones) with the word church.
Keep searching the internet for errors in the KJV. There's no telling what you will find.
 

throughfaith

Well-known member
Aug 4, 2020
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Did I quote a Bible scholar? No. I don't need to; the text is clear enough.
I'm saying the logical conclusion is if we don't have a Single English translation to depend on then we are left with the scholars opinions and a 'patch work ' mixture of all translations which may or may not be the 'correct / best / oldest / reliable / preferred/ rendering/ should not be included/ be included / greekitus.
 

Dino246

Senior Member
Jun 30, 2015
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I'm saying the logical conclusion is if we don't have a Single English translation to depend on then we are left with the scholars opinions and a 'patch work ' mixture of all translations which may or may not be the 'correct / best / oldest / reliable / preferred/ rendering/ should not be included/ be included / greekitus.
The truth is that we don't have a single English translation on which to rely. Even when the KJV was published, that wasn't the case, as Wycliffe, Tyndale, Geneva, Bishop's, and a few others were already in circulation by that time. So, while your statement sounds logical, it is so far removed from reality as to be irrelevant.
 

throughfaith

Well-known member
Aug 4, 2020
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The truth is that we don't have a single English translation on which to rely. Even when the KJV was published, that wasn't the case, as Wycliffe, Tyndale, Geneva, Bishop's, and a few others were already in circulation by that time. So, while your statement sounds logical, it is so far removed from reality as to be irrelevant.
//The truth is that we don't have a single English translation on which to rely// This should scare you. This is exactly where I used to be . Now I see its the Kjv .
 
Jun 30, 2021
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I just give verses without choosing version for others
//The truth is that we don't have a single English translation on which to rely// This should scare you. This is exactly where I used to be . Now I see its the Kjv .
For me, direct experience is what I rely on... exactly because no text can rightly express it

It is fun to try, but when you really do you realize the futility of those who have already tried

Still you must


I have a huge problem with the KJV translation of Isaiah 45:7

The words used are the same as the book of knowledge of good and evil

It thus asserts God is responsible for all evil

Thus is comfortable for a Jew in Babylon because their God is purely good and fights evil

Yahweh became Ahura Mazda, Satan developed in place of Angra Mainyu based on Job
 
Jun 30, 2021
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This is uncomfortable for a Jew in Babylon*

I can't edit, it already timed out

I dunno why the line above the quote is there either, ugh