Private Interpretation faux pas

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GaryA

Truth, Honesty, Love, Courage
Aug 10, 2019
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#1
2 Peter 1:

19 We have also a more sure word of prophecy; whereunto ye do well that ye take heed, as unto a light that shineth in a dark place, until the day dawn, and the day star arise in your hearts: 20 Knowing this first, that no prophecy of the scripture is of any private interpretation. 21 For the prophecy came not in old time by the will of man: but holy men of God spake as they were moved by the Holy Ghost.

For all of you who have been using these verses to make accusation against other CC members --- did you know that you were doing so entirely out-of-context?

These verses are not referring to how someone who reads Bible prophecy interprets it.

It is talking about the writers of Bible prophecy not applying any private interpretation to what they wrote.
 

Dino246

Senior Member
Jun 30, 2015
14,554
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#2
I agree with you, that many people misinterpret this verse. I see it as addressing the origin of the prophetic message. The writers didn't privately interpret the times or circumstances and create a "prophetic" message. Rather, the Holy Spirit moved them and they spoke (or wrote) God's certain knowledge of the situation or events, whether then-present or future.
 
S

SpoonJuly

Guest
#3
2 Peter 1:

19 We have also a more sure word of prophecy; whereunto ye do well that ye take heed, as unto a light that shineth in a dark place, until the day dawn, and the day star arise in your hearts: 20 Knowing this first, that no prophecy of the scripture is of any private interpretation. 21 For the prophecy came not in old time by the will of man: but holy men of God spake as they were moved by the Holy Ghost.

For all of you who have been using these verses to make accusation against other CC members --- did you know that you were doing so entirely out-of-context?

These verses are not referring to how someone who reads Bible prophecy interprets it.

It is talking about the writers of Bible prophecy not applying any private interpretation to what they wrote.
I agree with you, that many people misinterpret this verse. I see it as addressing the origin of the prophetic message. The writers didn't privately interpret the times or circumstances and create a "prophetic" message. Rather, the Holy Spirit moved them and they spoke (or wrote) God's certain knowledge of the situation or events, whether then-present or future.
While I agree with both statements, no one has the right to put their own spin, meaning, or "interpretation" on Scripture so as to support their belief.
All Scripture is very precise in its meaning as is not to be taken out of context or in any way to be used to PROVE what I, you , or anyone believes.
BUT, there are some that do so.
 

Dino246

Senior Member
Jun 30, 2015
14,554
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#4
While I agree with both statements, no one has the right to put their own spin, meaning, or "interpretation" on Scripture so as to support their belief.
All Scripture is very precise in its meaning as is not to be taken out of context or in any way to be used to PROVE what I, you , or anyone believes.
BUT, there are some that do so.
The challenge is that we all do interpret to some degree. The very act of reading involves interpretation (though often inadvertent) as we filter meaning through our understanding of the words on the page. If we think we know what a word means, but have a different meaning in mind than what the author (translator) meant, we can conclude something different than intended. That's why making the effort to understand the passage from the writer's perspective is worthwhile. Most passages are relatively straightforward, a few are obviously not, and some are assumed to be straightforward but actually aren't.
 

garee

Senior Member
Mar 28, 2016
15,211
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#5
2 Peter 1:

19 We have also a more sure word of prophecy; whereunto ye do well that ye take heed, as unto a light that shineth in a dark place, until the day dawn, and the day star arise in your hearts: 20 Knowing this first, that no prophecy of the scripture is of any private interpretation. 21 For the prophecy came not in old time by the will of man: but holy men of God spake as they were moved by the Holy Ghost.

For all of you who have been using these verses to make accusation against other CC members --- did you know that you were doing so entirely out-of-context?

These verses are not referring to how someone who reads Bible prophecy interprets it.

It is talking about the writers of Bible prophecy not applying any private interpretation to what they wrote.
I would offer. If the interpretation is not of God, not seen. . . then it is private "commentary stuff" as our heresy or bias .

No private interpretations .That speaks of the witness of men as the things of men seen, the temporal. Those that appose the witness of God as the one source of Christian faith. They would be those who elevate men above all things written in the law and the prophets "The two witness of God" that make up the one eternal tradition of God as it is written (sola scriptura)

No man can serve "two masters" (self and God) .That seen the temporal and that not seen the eternal faith principle. Even Jesus refused to stand in the holy place of the unseen Good Master and said God alone is good.Giving glory to the unseen..

1 John 5:9 If we receive the witness of men, the witness of God is greater: for "this is" the witness of God which he hath testified of his Son.

Private interpretations .Are that in which the eyes see without the mixing of faith . They work together naking our hearts soft. Called the gospel in Hebrews 4 the rest we receive yoked with him

2 Corinthians 4:18 While we look not at the things which are seen, but at the things which are not seen: for the things which are seen are temporal; but the things which are not seen are eternal.
 

Dino246

Senior Member
Jun 30, 2015
14,554
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#6
I would offer. If the interpretation is not of God, not seen. . . then it is private "commentary stuff" as our heresy or bias .

No private interpretations .That speaks of the witness of men as the things of men seen, the temporal. Those that appose the witness of God as the one source of Christian faith. They would be those who elevate men above all things written in the law and the prophets "The two witness of God" that make up the one eternal tradition of God as it is written (sola scriptura)

No man can serve "two masters" (self and God) .That seen the temporal and that not seen the eternal faith principle. ...

1 John 5:9 If we receive the witness of men, the witness of God is greater: for "this is" the witness of God which he hath testified of his Son.

Private interpretations .Are that in which the eyes see without the mixing of faith . They work together naking our hearts soft. Called the gospel in Hebrews 4 the rest we receive yoked with him

2 Corinthians 4:18 While we look not at the things which are seen, but at the things which are not seen: for the things which are seen are temporal; but the things which are not seen are eternal.
What happens when you "mix faith with" the wrong interpretation of a passage?
 

Nehemiah6

Senior Member
Jul 18, 2017
11,988
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#7
It is talking about the writers of Bible prophecy not applying any private interpretation to what they wrote.
This is related to whether prophecies originated in the minds and imaginations of the prophets, or whether the Holy Spirit gave them the revelations and visions. It means that the apostles and prophets were not putting their own thoughts down but what was given by divine inspiration. And the next verse clarifies the thought: For the prophecy came not in old time by the will of man: but holy men of God spake as they were moved by the Holy Ghost.

As a result there are some verses where even though the prophet is speaking. we are told that the Holy Spirit is speaking, or God is speaking.
 

garee

Senior Member
Mar 28, 2016
15,211
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#8
What happens when you "mix faith with" the wrong interpretation of a passage?
The way I understand and am learning hopefully daily about faith (the mystery revealer)

The mixing of faith provides the gospel interpretation hid in parables . No mixing. . no faith. Neither stand alone .But together like the father and Son they represent one. .Historical accuracy as well as gospel accuracy .The law of faith

By it we rest from our own works of trying to understand the parables, hid from natural mankind . A tool to teach us how to walk by faith that comes by hearing our God not seen

Hebrews 4:1-7 King James Version (KJV) Let us therefore fear, lest, a promise being left us of entering into his rest, any of you should seem to come short of it. For unto us was the gospel preached, as well as unto them: but the word preached did not profit them, not being mixed with faith in them that heard it.For we which have believed do enter into rest, as he said, As I have sworn in my wrath, if they shall enter into my rest: although the works were finished from the foundation of the world. For he spake in a certain place of the seventh day on this wise, And God did rest the seventh day from all his works.And in this place again, If they shall enter into my rest.Seeing therefore it remaineth that some must enter therein, and they to whom it was first preached entered not in because of unbelief:Again, he limiteth a certain day, saying in David, To day, after so long a time; as it is said, To day if ye will hear his voice, harden not your hearts.
 

Dino246

Senior Member
Jun 30, 2015
14,554
7,844
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#9
What happens when you "mix faith with" the wrong interpretation of a passage?
The way I understand and am learning hopefully daily about faith (the mystery revealer)
Uh huh. Please re-read my question and your response several times.

The mixing of faith provides the gospel interpretation hid in parables .
The gospel is not hidden in the parables, but rather given in the plain text of Scripture.

No mixing. . no faith.
That makes no sense. You said earlier, "the mixing of faith"... what is mixed with what, in your view?

Neither stand alone .
Neither... of what? Mixing and faith?

The law of faith
You keep mentioning this "law of faith". Please explain what (in your understanding) "the law of faith" is, in no more than two sentences.

By it we rest from our own works of trying to understand the parables, hid from natural mankind .
Which passage in Scripture tells you this?
 

garee

Senior Member
Mar 28, 2016
15,211
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#10
The gospel is not hidden in the parables, but rather given in the plain text of Scripture.
Do you have scripture to support that idea or another source of faith?

It seems you are getting close to a mix.

Yes hidden in the plain text of Scripture. Hidden from them that literalize the parable . The signified tongue of God. Taking away to unseen gospel understanding. Cant serve two masters . The literal letter that kills and the unseen spirit as a law of faith. They must be mixed according to the prescription for rightly dividing the parables (scripture) "Para" come alongside
 

Dino246

Senior Member
Jun 30, 2015
14,554
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#11

garee

Senior Member
Mar 28, 2016
15,211
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#12
1 Corinthians 15:3-4.
How would that portion of scripture support that idea or another source of faith other than scripture ?

It is the source as a law not subject to change ..

For I delivered unto you first of all that which I also received, how that Christ died for our sins according to the scriptures; And that he was buried, and that he rose again the third day according to the scriptures:1 Corinthians 15:3-4

learning that parable just like tongues are scripture .And the prescription for rightly dividing them gives us the unseen understanding.

Self-contradictory.
It is revealed to those who search for the hidden meaning as a source of Christian faith.

Meaningless bafflegab.
The meaning is hidden from them that literalize the parable, the signified tongue of God, called prophecy.

Why take away to unseen gospel understanding? What is the hope in doing so? Are we better off not to interpret them according to 2 Corinthian 4:18 the tool for rightly dividing and mixing faith?



What do you think mixing faith represents?

2 Corinthians 4:18 While we look not at the things which are seen, but at the things which are not seen: for the things which are seen are temporal; but the things which are not seen are eternal
 

Locoponydirtman

Well-known member
Oct 9, 2018
2,842
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Texas
#13
Well, I for one, always used that passage as a support for legitimizing of Epistles as scripture.
 

Dino246

Senior Member
Jun 30, 2015
14,554
7,844
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#14
How would that portion of scripture support that idea or another source of faith other than scripture ?
If you traced the conversation, you'd know what I intended in quoting those verses.

It seems you are getting close to a mix.
I said, "Of what?"
learning that parable just like tongues are scripture .And the prescription for rightly dividing them gives us the unseen understanding.
That is not a "mix" of anything. I know that there are parables in Scripture, and I know how to interpret them.

I said, "The gospel is not hidden in the parables, but rather given in the plain text of Scripture."
Yes hidden in the plain text of Scripture.
I said, "Self-contradictory."
It is revealed to those who search for the hidden meaning as a source of Christian faith.
That is ridiculous. The gospel is given in the plain text of Scripture, not hidden in parables. It is preached; one need not search out "hidden meanings" in the parables to understand the gospel.

Hidden from them that literalize the parable . The signified tongue of God. Taking away to unseen gospel understanding.
I said, "Meaningless bafflegab."
The meaning is hidden from them that literalize the parable, the signified tongue of God, called prophecy.
Repeating your meaningless bafflegab doesn't make it meaningful. Your assertions are not supported by Scripture.

Why take away to unseen gospel understanding? What is the hope in doing so? Are we better off not to interpret them according to 2 Corinthian 4:18 the tool for rightly dividing and mixing faith?
I'm not taking anything away, because there is nothing to take away.

What do you think mixing faith represents?
It's the phrase you keep using, so you explain it.
 

Jackson123

Senior Member
Feb 6, 2014
8,914
804
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#15
2 Peter 1:

19 We have also a more sure word of prophecy; whereunto ye do well that ye take heed, as unto a light that shineth in a dark place, until the day dawn, and the day star arise in your hearts: 20 Knowing this first, that no prophecy of the scripture is of any private interpretation. 21 For the prophecy came not in old time by the will of man: but holy men of God spake as they were moved by the Holy Ghost.

For all of you who have been using these verses to make accusation against other CC members --- did you know that you were doing so entirely out-of-context?

These verses are not referring to how someone who reads Bible prophecy interprets it.

It is talking about the writers of Bible prophecy not applying any private interpretation to what they wrote.
Some people make mistake but honest, that is what he think the verse mean.

Some people deliberately make wrong interpretation because money.

For example sale certificate of forgiveness

People that make this doctrine know it is wrong interpretation but he did it for money
 

CS1

Moderator
May 23, 2012
5,139
1,292
113
#16
2 Peter 1:

19 We have also a more sure word of prophecy; whereunto ye do well that ye take heed, as unto a light that shineth in a dark place, until the day dawn, and the day star arise in your hearts: 20 Knowing this first, that no prophecy of the scripture is of any private interpretation. 21 For the prophecy came not in old time by the will of man: but holy men of God spake as they were moved by the Holy Ghost.

For all of you who have been using these verses to make accusation against other CC members --- did you know that you were doing so entirely out-of-context?

These verses are not referring to how someone who reads Bible prophecy interprets it.

It is talking about the writers of Bible prophecy not applying any private interpretation to what they wrote.
Many confuse application. How one apply the word of God to their life. an application is not an interpretation.

The authorial intent, the Author being God through the Holy Spirit given to man.

1. Why did the author say it?
2. Who did HE say it to?
3. What was the time frame it was said in ?
4. How did they apply it then?
5. How do we apply it today?

Answer all those questions and you will have good understanding of the Authors intent for saying it and writing it in the word of God .
 

Karraster

Senior Member
Nov 10, 2013
3,137
494
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#17
These verses are not referring to how someone who reads Bible prophecy interprets it.

It is talking about the writers of Bible prophecy not applying any private interpretation to what they wrote.
Absolutely and thank you for saying it. The writers are telling us that they didn't make this stuff up it's inspired by the Creator. Yet, folks will continue to make it about how it's read not what is actually said.
 

UnoiAmarah

Junior Member
Jul 28, 2017
517
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#18
For all of you who have been using these verses to make accusation against other CC members --- did you know that you were doing so entirely out-of-context?
So is your prophesy of 2 Peter 1:20 that only your interpretation, or whatever interpretation you choose to believe, is the correct one and isn't open to being interpreted differently?

While that was a question and not an accusation, I fail to see how having a different perspective on the meaning of scripture(s) amounts to making an accusation against anyone who has a different interpretation.


These verses are not referring to how someone who reads Bible prophecy interprets it.
You're right, it isn't referring unto how someone interprets what they read.
  • And he saith unto them, Are ye so without understanding also? Do ye not perceive, that whatsoever thing from without entereth into the man, it cannot defile him; Mark 7:18
It is referring to what a person says after reading the scriptures.
  • And he said, That which cometh out of the man, that defileth the man. Mark 7:20
Of course men who lacked the ability to teach themselves how to read wouldn't have the ability to interpret the scriptures since one must be able to read in order to interpret what is written.
 

garee

Senior Member
Mar 28, 2016
15,211
1,427
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#19
What happens when you "mix faith with" the wrong interpretation of a passage?


His interpretation, is the source or power of faith as it is written. We mix it (his interpretation) with the things seen the temporal in order to give us the unseen understanding. We can believe because he works in us revealing to us the unseen.

Not who do men say Christ is the private interpretation ? Peter learned that lesson the hard way when he denied the one who had just miraculously revealed who he was .The pride before the fall.

The Father in heaven as Lord forgave Peter of his blasphemy and rebuked Satan for not having the the unseen thing of God, things of faith rather than the the things of men, the temporal.

A example of the gospel his interpretation or witness his using the temporal the witness of men ; to give us the unseen .
Like in that parable of figure below. The gospel or spiritual meaning that speaks of the suffering of Christ is hid.


Hebrews 11:18-20 King James Version (KJV) Of whom it was said, That in Isaac shall thy seed be called: Accounting that God was able to raise him up, even from the dead; from whence also he received him in a figure. By faith Isaac blessed Jacob and Esau concerning things to come

We compare as informed in 1 Corinthians 2. The spiritual unseen understanding to the same in order to find the same gospel faith to faith... or face to face . the gospel with Abraham and Isaac or with Jacob and Esau ,

Those parables compared to another beautiful parable like in Exodus 4 Again revealing the work of a suffering savior

Exodus 4:25Then Zipporah took a sharp stone, and cut off the foreskin of her son, and cast it at his feet, and said, Surely a bloody husband art thou to me.So he let him go: then she said, A bloody husband thou art, because of the circumcision.
 

Dino246

Senior Member
Jun 30, 2015
14,554
7,844
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#20
His interpretation, is the source or power of faith as it is written. We mix it (his interpretation) with the things seen the temporal in order to give us the unseen understanding. We can believe because he works in us revealing to us the unseen.
You haven't answered my question. Please read the preceding posts, and read my question again carefully.

The Father in heaven as Lord forgave Peter of his blasphemy and rebuked Satan for not having the the unseen thing of God, things of faith rather than the the things of men, the temporal.
Where in Scripture are Peter's words called blasphemy? Please provide the Scripture reference.