BTW, I'm still asking God the question of why it isn't stated more clearly throughout the bible. And I'm willing to seek and wait on God until he reveals it clearly.
However, if you remember that "the bible" only contains writings that were agreeable to the entire group(s) of men that were doing the selecting, it's not hard to fathom that writings addressing 'disagreeable' topics would have been excluded. I'm actually amazed in some ways that 1 Corinthians 14 was even allowed to be included. I'm guessing it's because it's written in a way that can be viewed as being sufficiently non-supportive of tongues by way of the contrast with the purpose of prophesying.
Further, it is also spoken in Romans 8 which clearly states that "the spirit ITSELF beareth witness" (meaning it provides observable evidence) Romans 8: 16. And that the Spirit prays things that we know not (therefore cannot be spoken in our understanding) Rom 8:26. And that only God (He that searches the hearts) knows what is being said (Rom. 8: 27). And that what is being prayed edifies us (helpeth our infirmities- Rom 8:26. And that you are always praying well when praying in the spirit(tongues) Rom 8:27 And that if you don't have it, you are none of his Romans 8: 9.
That (of course) is in perfect agreement with the 1 Corinthians statements about speaking in tongues. But again, it was spread out enough throughout the chapter that the selectors probably assumed people wouldn't be able to see it or realize it.
THAT is a second accounting, in the epistles, of the NEED for the same Holy Ghost that was being poured out in all the accounts in the book of Acts (and 1 Cor. 14) for those willing to receive it.
Love in Jesus,
Kelby