E
I think the argument is mute.
If I say I have a thousand dollars. I could mean I literally have 1000 dollars, or I could mean I have near a thousand, or I could mean I have alot of money.
Thus both Stilly and GRC have valid points
which leads us to the question. Why Would God tell John his son would rule for a thousand years And not mean literally (or at least close to) a thousand years?
John was told he was to write what he saw, so we who read his letter can understand the things which will happen. It makes no sense why God would confuse the reader, and say his son will rule for a thousand years after the beast and false prophet are cast to hell, and Satan is bound, when in reality it is no where near a thousand years. (example. now it would be over 2 thousand years in length if we listen to ammilenialism)
If I say I have a thousand dollars. I could mean I literally have 1000 dollars, or I could mean I have near a thousand, or I could mean I have alot of money.
Thus both Stilly and GRC have valid points
which leads us to the question. Why Would God tell John his son would rule for a thousand years And not mean literally (or at least close to) a thousand years?
John was told he was to write what he saw, so we who read his letter can understand the things which will happen. It makes no sense why God would confuse the reader, and say his son will rule for a thousand years after the beast and false prophet are cast to hell, and Satan is bound, when in reality it is no where near a thousand years. (example. now it would be over 2 thousand years in length if we listen to ammilenialism)
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