The curse of the law came in by 2 ways. . .
The first part of this curse has to do with sin. . .
Now for the second part of the curse, which is swearing to the oath. . .
The first part of this curse has to do with sin. . .
Now for the second part of the curse, which is swearing to the oath. . .
The result of sin was the curse because those were the terms/conditions of the covenant into which they entered.
It's not two parts, it's all one transaction--terms of the covenant: obedience-->blessing, sin-->curse
Are you saying entering into the covenant was a curse?
None of this is making sense to me in the light of the NT.
After Moses had read the law, all the blessings and the curses, the people then bound themselves to the oath by agreeing to keep everything that was written in the law.
Which is why Jesus said Matthew 5:33-37 “Again, ye have heard that it hath been said by them of old time, Thou shalt not forswear thyself, but shalt perform unto the Lord thine oaths:[SUP]34 [/SUP]But I say unto you, Swear not at all; neither by heaven; for it is God's throne:[SUP]35 [/SUP]Nor by the earth; for it is his footstool: neither by Jerusalem; for it is the city of the great King.[SUP]36 [/SUP]Neither shalt thou swear by thy head, because thou canst not make one hair white or black.[SUP]37 [/SUP]But let your communication be, Yea, yea; Nay, nay: for whatsoever is more than these cometh of evil.”
And here again also in James 5:12 “But above all things, my brethren, swear not, neither by heaven, neither by the earth, neither by any other oath: but let your yea be yea; and your nay, nay; lest ye fall into condemnation.”
. . .being unable to perform the vow to God to keep the whole law. . .then the curses mentioned in the law were put into effect.
And here again also in James 5:12 “But above all things, my brethren, swear not, neither by heaven, neither by the earth, neither by any other oath: but let your yea be yea; and your nay, nay; lest ye fall into condemnation.”
. . .being unable to perform the vow to God to keep the whole law. . .then the curses mentioned in the law were put into effect.
The covenant into which they entered required blessing for its observance and curses for its violation.
Are you saying that Israel should not have agreed to the Sinaitic Covenant because it bound them to curses if they violated it?
Are you saying they should have told God, "Thanks, but no thanks."
Are you saying God made them a false offer when he promised blessings for compliance with the covenant, because all he was actually promising were curses?
Are you saying God tricked them?
Do we find this notion anywhere in the NT?
Is that why you think oaths are forbidden, because they are trickery?
This is bizarre and totally contra-NT. . .please tell me it is not what you are saying.
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