Wow. And now I've read it....I've heard some desperate stuff before.
So Jesus died without leaving any real estate, BMW's, or family silver, is that the general drift here?
So Jesus died without leaving any real estate, BMW's, or family silver, is that the general drift here?
So what is your point? HE had life, and for three days only He did not have life. BUT I do not think that is what it was talking about. I believe it is talking about the Legal and binding act of Designating an Heir to all the Property that was legally HIS. Clearly JOSEPH, His Mother's husband is dead before the crucifixion, because she went home with JOHN. But something else happened just before she left with JOHN. In the Jewish culture, a man could pass on his property before his death, by a verbal statement, often calling designated the Birthright, to anyone he so chose. It did not have to be an OFFSPRING, it could be anybody, but that verbal passing of the inheritance in that manor HAD TO HAVE two or three eye witnesses. Now we have no mention of how Joseph died, or of his naming his HEIR, either in writing, or the traditional verbal contract. Joseph's DAD, Jacob was very rich, and so was Mary's DAD, Heli. BUT THE LAW at that time FORBADE a woman from inheriting property, and Mary's DAD had no sons, so how did Jewish LAW handle that INHERITANCE? It went to the husband of the eldest daughter, when the deseased had not named a male heir. Even if Joseph died suddenly, unexpectedly, such as a heart attack; what did Jewish LAW require to be done with all that property from two inheritances? It would all go to the Eldest Son, making Jesus the inheritor of all of Joseph's property. If Joseph actually verally named Jesus before he died as his inheritor, JESUS would have the LEGAL TITLE "SON OF JOSEPH", the same would be true, even if Joseph had name a Servant his heir. That would explain why John and Phillip had no problem with wording in this verse:
John 1:45 (ESV)
[SUP]45 [/SUP] Philip found Nathanael and said to him, “We have found him of whom Moses in the Law and also the prophets wrote, Jesus of Nazareth, the son of Joseph.”
Before anyone starts pointing fingures, know that I researched all of this years ago and even found a Jewish Christian Lawer that posted an article verifying the LEGAL comments I am posting, and that plus the fact that we only have a fraction of the history facts surrounding the life of JESUS, makes this the most logical explanation of what happened to the Property of Joseph:
John 21:25 (ESV)
[SUP]25 [/SUP] Now there are also many other things that Jesus did. Were every one of them to be written, I suppose that the world itself could not contain the books that would be written.
Now, there is some indication that Joseph died within two years before the Death of Jesus.
Matthew 8:20 (NIV)
[SUP]20 [/SUP] Jesus replied, "Foxes have holes and birds of the air have nests, but the Son of Man has no place to lay his head."
Therefore, we know Jesus was not an inheritor at the time He said that. So where is the evidence of JESUS Passing of the Birthright to some other male?
John 19:25-27 (HCSB)
[SUP]25 [/SUP] Standing by the cross of Jesus were His mother, His mother’s sister, Mary the wife of Clopas, and Mary Magdalene.
[SUP]26 [/SUP] When Jesus saw His mother and the disciple He loved standing there, He said to His mother, “Woman, here is your son.”
[SUP]27 [/SUP] Then He said to the disciple, “Here is your mother.” And from that hour the disciple took her into his home.
There are the three witness, and the Jewish Lawyer who's article I read, said that was quite sufficient according to Jewish LAW to be considered a LEGAL passing of the Birthright Inheritance, much the same as Esau sold his birthright to his brother Jacob. Not only did JOHN take Mary home with him, but He inherited all of Joseph's property to support her, AND HE HAD THE LEGAL RIGHT TO BE CALLED BY THE TITLE, "SON OF JOSEPH". Thus Jesus died owning NOTHING. But Mary lost both her husband and eldest son in a short amount of time.
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In focusing on that last part of the sentence YOU take your eyes off of the specific implication of first statement in the VERSE:
Daniel 9:26 (HCSB)
[SUP]26 [/SUP] After those 62 weeks the Messiah will be cut off and will have nothing. The people of the coming prince will destroy the city and the sanctuary. The end will come with a flood, and until the end there will be war; desolations are decreed.
AFTER is before the 70th Week of Daniel, which BEGINS WITH the signing of the Seven Year Peace Treaty Covenant.
THAT TOTALLY JUSTIFIES the GAP that is the Church Age as absolute FACT.
John 1:45 (ESV)
[SUP]45 [/SUP] Philip found Nathanael and said to him, “We have found him of whom Moses in the Law and also the prophets wrote, Jesus of Nazareth, the son of Joseph.”
Before anyone starts pointing fingures, know that I researched all of this years ago and even found a Jewish Christian Lawer that posted an article verifying the LEGAL comments I am posting, and that plus the fact that we only have a fraction of the history facts surrounding the life of JESUS, makes this the most logical explanation of what happened to the Property of Joseph:
John 21:25 (ESV)
[SUP]25 [/SUP] Now there are also many other things that Jesus did. Were every one of them to be written, I suppose that the world itself could not contain the books that would be written.
Now, there is some indication that Joseph died within two years before the Death of Jesus.
Matthew 8:20 (NIV)
[SUP]20 [/SUP] Jesus replied, "Foxes have holes and birds of the air have nests, but the Son of Man has no place to lay his head."
Therefore, we know Jesus was not an inheritor at the time He said that. So where is the evidence of JESUS Passing of the Birthright to some other male?
John 19:25-27 (HCSB)
[SUP]25 [/SUP] Standing by the cross of Jesus were His mother, His mother’s sister, Mary the wife of Clopas, and Mary Magdalene.
[SUP]26 [/SUP] When Jesus saw His mother and the disciple He loved standing there, He said to His mother, “Woman, here is your son.”
[SUP]27 [/SUP] Then He said to the disciple, “Here is your mother.” And from that hour the disciple took her into his home.
There are the three witness, and the Jewish Lawyer who's article I read, said that was quite sufficient according to Jewish LAW to be considered a LEGAL passing of the Birthright Inheritance, much the same as Esau sold his birthright to his brother Jacob. Not only did JOHN take Mary home with him, but He inherited all of Joseph's property to support her, AND HE HAD THE LEGAL RIGHT TO BE CALLED BY THE TITLE, "SON OF JOSEPH". Thus Jesus died owning NOTHING. But Mary lost both her husband and eldest son in a short amount of time.
><>t<><
In focusing on that last part of the sentence YOU take your eyes off of the specific implication of first statement in the VERSE:
Daniel 9:26 (HCSB)
[SUP]26 [/SUP] After those 62 weeks the Messiah will be cut off and will have nothing. The people of the coming prince will destroy the city and the sanctuary. The end will come with a flood, and until the end there will be war; desolations are decreed.
AFTER is before the 70th Week of Daniel, which BEGINS WITH the signing of the Seven Year Peace Treaty Covenant.
THAT TOTALLY JUSTIFIES the GAP that is the Church Age as absolute FACT.