Oh boy, how should I go about addressing what you have stated? Let me first say that I consider myself a "rational empiricist." Doubting Thomas was a "rational empiricist" in that he wanted to see evidence of our Lord's resurrection at John 20:25-28. I also like to think logically and use common sense. God in "NEVER" illogical, at times He is "a-logical" which means He goes beyond logic.
Now, who is the one that started all this talk about the return of the Lord Jesus Christ? Three of the disciples ask Jesus Christ at Matthew 24:3 the following question? "Tell us, when will these things be, and what will be the sign of Your coming, and the end of the age/world?" The "what things" are found at Matthew 24:1-2.
What Jesus is saying is not only in a Jewish context but what will happen at the end of the world. I say Jewish context based on Matthew 24:20, "But pray that your flight is not in the winter, or on a "SABBATH." Plus, there is no doubt the Temple was completely destroyed at 70AD. and the events in the Matthew 24 will still apply before His second coming.
So you have at Matthew 24:15, "Therefore when you see the Abomination of Desolation which was spoken of through Daniel the prophet, standing in the holy place, (let the reader understand.) Understand what? What we are suppose to do in the following verses. Then notice Matthew 24:29, "But IMMEDIATELY AFTER THE TRIBULATION OF THOSE DAYS" you can read for yourself that the Son of Man will appear etc.
Now, as a personal note or question, I don't understand that after reading this and after others are reading it, why are they jumping to the Book of Revelation? We have at Matthew 24:3, the phrase or the words, "and the end of the world." We have at 1 Corinthians 15:52, "at the last trumpet." And how about the "last day" at John 12:48. And at 1 Thessalonians 5: 1-4 where it references "that day" of the day of the Lord. Or when do we get rest or relief at 2 Thess. 1:6-7, when the Lord is revealed from heaven with His mighty angels in flaming fire."
The Apostle Paul further explains at 2 Thess. 2:2 abut the "day" of the Lord and it comes "AFTER" the man of sin is revealed just like Jesus said at Matthew 24:15-29. And let us not forget the purpose of the parable of the ten virgins and the slaves at Matthew 25.
Jesus expects us to be ready by redeeming the time instead of doing what the lost are doing. Eating, drinking and doing business as usual not believeing the day of the Lord will overtake them. Five of the ten virgins were foolish and they were not saved, they ended up being lost. They professed to be Chritians but the Lord said at Matthew 25:12, "I did not know you."
Jesus also said in the parable of the slaves and talents at Matthew 25 that the one slave did nothing with his one talent. He too was a professing Christian but check out what happened to him at Matthew 25:29-30, "For to everyone has more be given, and shall have an abundance; but from the one who does not even what he does not have shall be taken away. Question? What happens to him?
Verse30, "And cast out the worthless slave into the outer darkness; in that place there shall be weeping and gnashing of teeth." Now pay attention to the next verse, Matthew 25:31, "But when the Son of Man comes in HIs glory and all the angels with Him, then He will sit on His glorious throne. vs32, "And all the nations will be gathered before Him; and He will separate them one from another, as a shepherd separates the sheep from the goats. vs33, and He will put the sheep on His right, and the goats on His left."
So, upon reading both Matthew 24 and chapter 25, where is the pretrib rapture? Why in the world does Jesus give us parables for us to be alert and ready for His second coming? He then tell us the ones that are not ready and alert, i.e the five foolish virgins and the one slave with his one talent are cast into hell?
IN GOD THE SON,
bluto