WHICH Bible "version" Is Authorized By God?

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John146

Senior Member
Jan 13, 2016
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It is pointless to discuss these matters with you, because, as you have demonstrated previously, you are unable to consider the possibility that the KJV is simply wrong.
Are you able to consider that the KJV is the holy, pure preserved words of God in English?
 

Lucy-Pevensie

Senior Member
Dec 20, 2017
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Why do the modern versions skip over verses and pick up like nothing happened? Is that being honest? Did they lose count?
They don't.
You've been told and shown the evidence numerous times but you choose not to accept reality.
 

John146

Senior Member
Jan 13, 2016
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They don't.
You've been told and shown the evidence numerous times but you choose not to accept reality.
Matthew 18:10-12 ESV
10 “See that you do not despise one of these little ones. For I tell you that in heaven their angels always see the face of my Father who is in heaven. 12 What do you think? If a man has a hundred sheep, and one of them has gone astray, does he not leave the ninety-nine on the mountains and go in search of the one that went astray?

Skipped right over 11 and picked up with verse 12. I understand that verse 11 is not in some of their manuscripts, but why skip the number?
 

Dino246

Senior Member
Jun 30, 2015
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Are you able to consider that the KJV is the holy, pure preserved words of God in English?
I will not consider the possibility of something being true when I already know it is not true.
 

Dino246

Senior Member
Jun 30, 2015
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Matthew 18:10-12 ESV
10 “See that you do not despise one of these little ones. For I tell you that in heaven their angels always see the face of my Father who is in heaven. 12 What do you think? If a man has a hundred sheep, and one of them has gone astray, does he not leave the ninety-nine on the mountains and go in search of the one that went astray?

Skipped right over 11 and picked up with verse 12. I understand that verse 11 is not in some of their manuscripts, but why skip the number?
So that other verses align. How difficult is this for you?
 

Nehemiah6

Senior Member
Jul 18, 2017
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Are only KJ Bible readers saved?
This is what is known as a red herring. "A red herring is something that misleads or distracts from a relevant or important question. It may be either a logical fallacy or a literary device that leads readers or audiences toward a false conclusion."

The issue has never been whether only KJ Bible readers are saved. The title is asking the question: "Which Bible version is authorized by God?" And God has given His stamp of approval and greatly blessed the Authorized Version for over 400 years. Even the Geneva Bible is now essentially obsolete, though it dates from the same time period. Which means that all English-speaking and English-reading people should be using the KJB EXCLUSIVELY. If we want to talk about Christian unity in the face of Satanic opposition, we could start right here.

But this makes the naysayers extremely uncomfortable, since they are faced with the issue of either continuing to support fraudulent versions, or throwing them all out and starting from scratch (so to speak).
 

Lucy-Pevensie

Senior Member
Dec 20, 2017
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Matthew 18:10-12 ESV
10 “See that you do not despise one of these little ones. For I tell you that in heaven their angels always see the face of my Father who is in heaven. 12 What do you think? If a man has a hundred sheep, and one of them has gone astray, does he not leave the ninety-nine on the mountains and go in search of the one that went astray?

Skipped right over 11 and picked up with verse 12. I understand that verse 11 is not in some of their manuscripts, but why skip the number?

Do you think it would be better if the numbering was thrown off for the rest of the chapter?
ESV explains: Some manuscripts include here the words of Luke 19:10


KJVO training is the least productive time a Christian can possibly spend in the word. Baseless attacks on others.
 

John146

Senior Member
Jan 13, 2016
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It is pointless to discuss these matters with you, because, as you have demonstrated previously, you are unable to consider the possibility that the KJV is simply wrong.
I will not consider the possibility of something being true when I already know it is not true.😉
 

Dino246

Senior Member
Jun 30, 2015
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Do you really not know the answer to that?

Just as when one building one a street is demolished and the remaining buildings don't all have their addresses changed, the verse and chapter numbering is preserved so that a given verse has only one "address" that remains consistent across different versions, translations, and reference works.
 

Dino246

Senior Member
Jun 30, 2015
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The title is asking the question: "Which Bible version is authorized by God?" And God has given His stamp of approval and greatly blessed the Authorized Version for over 400 years. Even the Geneva Bible is now essentially obsolete, though it dates from the same time period. Which means that all English-speaking and English-reading people should be using the KJB EXCLUSIVELY.
Your argument is a complete non sequitur.

The alleged obsolescence of the Geneva Bible does not mean that all English speakers should be using the KJV exclusively. The two thoughts are completely unrelated.

What happened while the KJV was the most readily-available translation does not in any way restrict what God can do or what we should do today.
 

Dino246

Senior Member
Jun 30, 2015
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I will not consider the possibility of something being true when I already know it is not true.😉
Fine. Then we have nothing to discuss. I will just ask this one thing of you: don't keep using stupid arguments for your position.
 

Magenta

Senior Member
Jul 3, 2015
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To say all translation and all bibles version are of equal value, and doctrinally they all say the same thing is not logical and blind.
Some changes affect the doctrines very little but some can change the meaning completely.

Matt 1:25 "her firstborn" is omitted. That Jesus was her firstborn indicates that Mary and Joseph had sexual relations after the birth of Jesus and that others were born of her. The omission here seeks to add credence to the false doctrine of the Roman Catholic Church concerning the perpetual virginity of Mary. The Bible is clear that Jesus had brothers and sisters.

It may be of no value to some but if there are hundreds/ thousands of changes it could really mess up your understanding of God.

I understand that there are many texts that are used today but if you go back in history, the two lines i was referring to is the, Catholic and Jesuit texts, which is what the reformers did not want to use. The other was the received text, and majority texts which the KJV is written from.
Just curious about which translation has that omission :) Is it among these? Sexual relations are specified in many...

New International Version
But he did not consummate their marriage until she gave birth to a son. And he gave him the name Jesus.


New Living Translation
But he did not have sexual relations with her until her son was born. And Joseph named him Jesus.


English Standard Version
but knew her not until she had given birth to a son. And he called his name Jesus.


Berean Study Bible
But he had no union with her until she gave birth to a Son. And he gave Him the name Jesus.


New American Standard Bible
but kept her a virgin until she gave birth to a Son; and he named Him Jesus.


NASB 1995
but kept her a virgin until she gave birth to a Son; and he called His name Jesus.


NASB 1977
and kept her a virgin until she gave birth to a Son; and he called His name Jesus.


Amplified Bible
but he kept her a virgin until she had given birth to a Son [her firstborn child]; and he named Him Jesus (The LORD is salvation).


Christian Standard Bible
but did not have sexual relations with her until she gave birth to a son. And he named him Jesus.


Holman Christian Standard Bible
but did not know her intimately until she gave birth to a son. And he named Him Jesus.


Contemporary English Version
But they did not sleep together before her baby was born. Then Joseph named him Jesus.


Good News Translation
But he had no sexual relations with her before she gave birth to her son. And Joseph named him Jesus.


GOD'S WORD® Translation
He did not have marital relations with her before she gave birth to a son. Joseph named the child Jesus.


International Standard Version
He did not have marital relations with her until she had given birth to a son; and he named him Jesus.


NET Bible
but did not have marital relations with her until she gave birth to a son, whom he named Jesus.


King James Bible
And knew her not till she had brought forth her firstborn son: and he called his name JESUS.


New King James Version
and did not know her till she had brought forth her firstborn Son. And he called His name JESUS.


King James 2000 Bible
And knew her not till she had brought forth her firstborn son: and he called his name JESUS.


New Heart English Bible
and had no marital relations with her until she had brought forth a son; and he named him Jesus.


World English Bible
and didn't know her sexually until she had brought forth her firstborn son. He named him Jesus.


American King James Version
And knew her not till she had brought forth her firstborn son: and he called his name JESUS.


American Standard Version
and knew her not till she had brought forth a son: and he called his name JESUS.


A Faithful Version
But he did not have sexual relations with her until after she had given birth to her Son, the firstborn; and he called His name Jesus.


Darby Bible Translation
and knew her not until she had brought forth her firstborn son: and he called his name Jesus.


English Revised Version
and knew her not till she had brought forth a son: and he called his name JESUS.


Webster's Bible Translation
And knew her not till she had brought forth her first-born son: and he called his name JESUS.


Geneva Bible of 1587
But he knew her not, til she had broght forth her first borne sonne, & he called his name Iesus.

Bishops' Bible of 1568
And knewe her not, tyll she hadde brought foorth her first borne sonne, & called his name Iesus.


Coverdale Bible of 1535
and knewe her not, tyll she had brought forth hir fyrst borne sonne, and called his name Iesus.


Tyndale Bible of 1526
and knewe her not tyll she had brought forth hir fyrst sonne and called hys name Iesus.


Literal Standard Version
and did not know her until she brought forth her Son—the firstborn, and he called His Name Jesus.

Berean Literal Bible
But he did not know her until she had brought forth a Son, and he called His name Jesus.


Young's Literal Translation
and did not know her till she brought forth her son -- the first-born, and he called his name Jesus.


Smith's Literal Translation
And he took to himself his wife, and knew her not till she brought forth her first born son: and be called his name Jesus.


Douay-Rheims Bible
And he knew her not till she brought forth her firstborn son: and he called his name JESUS.


Catholic Public Domain Version
And he knew her not, yet she bore her son, the firstborn. And he called his name JESUS.


Aramaic Bible in Plain English
And he did not know her sexually until she delivered her firstborn son, and she called his name Yeshua.


Lamsa Bible
And he did not know her until she gave birth to her first-born son; and she called his name Jesus.
 

presidente

Senior Member
May 29, 2013
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I didn't think you read Arabic. It was an illustration.
I used to be able to read Arabic. I might be able to pronounce some words if there are vowel marks still.

It's not related to the thread. I just wanted to say that. :)

Learning a little Arabic made learning a little Hebrew easier. Hebrew grammar is easier and less 'symmetrical.' There are some cognates. Sometimes I'll try to think of a Hebrew word and think of the Arabic cognate instead.
 

Lucy-Pevensie

Senior Member
Dec 20, 2017
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I used to be able to read Arabic. I might be able to pronounce some words if there are vowel marks still.

It's not related to the thread. I just wanted to say that. :)

Learning a little Arabic made learning a little Hebrew easier. Hebrew grammar is easier and less 'symmetrical.' There are some cognates.
It's somewhat related & interesting. And quite impressive.
 

throughfaith

Well-known member
Aug 4, 2020
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In whom we have redemption through his blood, even the forgiveness of sins:
kjv .

NIV
in whom we have redemption, the forgiveness of sins.
ESV
in whom we have redemption, the forgiveness of sins.

No blood ?? " through his blood " is critical.
 
Apr 15, 2017
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I will not fight over the translations and will not say the newer translations are wrong, but I use the KJV and have read through it and see no problem with it.

If a translation claims that there is one God the God of Israel, and salvation is for the world, and claims to repent of your sins, and claims Jesus as Lord, and Savior, and God, and mediator between God and people, and claims the Gospel, the death, burial, and resurrection of Jesus, and claims to be led of the Holy Spirit acting Christlike then it would seem like everything would fall in to place.

If that is all a person knew they would be in a good position because any teaching that went against that they would ignore, and would not follow anything contrary to those beliefs.

The KJV claims these things as well as new translations.

I started with the KJV so I stayed with it.
 

Dino246

Senior Member
Jun 30, 2015
19,310
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In whom we have redemption through his blood, even the forgiveness of sins:
kjv .

NIV
in whom we have redemption, the forgiveness of sins.
ESV
in whom we have redemption, the forgiveness of sins.

No blood ?? " through his blood " is critical.
The KJV is NOT the standard against which modern translations are to be compared. Rather, all are to be compared with the original-language sources.

If the words, "through his blood" are not in the Greek, then they don't belong in the English... period. If they do happen to appear in some manuscripts but not others, then someone needs to determine whether they are more likely original, or not.
 

throughfaith

Well-known member
Aug 4, 2020
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The KJV is NOT the standard against which modern translations are to be compared. Rather, all are to be compared with the original-language sources.

If the words, "through his blood" are not in the Greek, then they don't belong in the English... period. If they do happen to appear in some manuscripts but not others, then someone needs to determine whether they are more likely original, or not.
But there's no redemption without the blood . literally. So doctrine wise ,it's a red flag.