In acknowledging he was the son of God, there were those who thought they could make a case of blasphemy against him, I think.
You even said "he is the son of God." Then you added, "there were those who thought they could make a case of blasphemy against him, I think." Why would claiming to be the son of God be considered blasphemy? Here, I'll give you an example of what I'm getting at.
At John 10:31-38 we have the Jews taking up stones AGAIN to stone Him." (vs31). Jesus at vs32 says, "I showed you many good works from the Father; for which of them are you stoning Me?" Vs33, "For a good work we do not stone You, but for blasphemy; and because You being a man, make Yourself God." Let me insert at this point the fact that the Jews/Pharisees were not stupid. The point I want to make right here is that in all of these instances regarding the charge of blasphemy the Jews came to that conclusion based entirely on what Jesus Christ said first.
So in this instance it was what Jesus said at John 10:30, "I and the Father, we are one." Now, here is where John 10 gets really interesting. Jesus answered them (vs34), "Has it not been written in your law, "I say you are gods?" Vs35, "If he called them gods, to whom the word of God came, (and the Scriptures cannot be broken) vs36, do you say of Him, whom the Father sanctified and sent into the world, "You are blaspheming, because I said, "I am the Son of God?"
So my question is (and remember I'm playing devils advocate) why did Jesus Christ quote Psalm 82:6 to the Jews? Please think about it. And btw, this is for anybody to answer.
IN GOD THE SON,