Did God Tell Hosea to Marry a Prostitute?

Jason0047 · Aug 14, 2014

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[TD="class: alt1, bgcolor: #F6F6F6"]Did God Really Tell Hosea to Marry a Prostitute?

According to Hosea 1:2: Many well intentioned Christians believe God told Hosea to marry a prostitute. However, is this true?

Well, to entertain such an idea that the Lord our God would send a specific command to one of His prophets to indulge in an act of fornication with a prostitute is not only wrong but it does not make any logical sense. For there are two very important facts a person has to ignore when they believe such a thing.

#1. A person has to Ignore God's Holy and righteous character. For haven't we read within the Scriptures that say: "Let no man say when he is tempted, I am tempted of God: for God cannot be tempted with evil, neither tempteth he any man" (James 1:13).

#2. A person has to ignore just how horrific the sinful act of fornication is bodily and the false worship of idolatry actually is.

Should we believe that the Lord would force a holy man of God into committing this despicable act with a prostitute (i.e. fornication) for the purpose of reproving the abominations of others? How could Hosea be the instrument for exposing & punishing the sin of Israel when He would be just as guilty as they? Where is the wisdom in this, as the means for Israel to change?

I believe part of the problem lies within the translation of Modern Versions. Some of them flat out say that the Lord told Hosea to marry a prostitute. This would include the New International Version (NIV), New Language Translation (NLT), God's Word (2003), and the Webster's Bible Translation to name just a few.

However, according to the King James (1769 Edition) in Hosea 1:2 it says:

"The beginning of the word of the LORD by Hosea. And the LORD said to Hosea, Go, take unto thee a wife of whoredoms and children of whoredoms: for the land hath committed great whoredom, departing from the LORD."

At dictionary.com the word "whoredoms" refers to "idolatry". So if we were to re-read this verse with the word idolatry instead. The verse becomes a lot clearer.

"The beginning of the word of the LORD by Hosea. And the LORD said to Hosea, Go, take unto thee a wife of idolatry and children of idolatry: for the land hath committed great idolatry, departing from the LORD." ~ (Hosea 1:2)

Doesn't the truth make more sense when you interpret it correctly?
Do you agree?

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Tintin · Aug 14, 2014

Just give up, dude.

Agricola · Aug 14, 2014

You are so obsessed with King James Only Cult that you are not seeing how stupid you are coming across in trying to prove so called modern versions are wrong. All dictionaries, including dictionary.com state clearly that Whoredom means prostitution etc

From the Oxford English Dictionary.
[h=1]Definition of whoredom in English:
[/h]
[h=2]whoredom[/h][mass noun] dated Prostitution or other promiscuous sexual activity: he’d accused her of adultery, betrayal, whoredom, and deceit

Here is the original Hebrew word used and the meaning of that word, it does not say idolatry.

The KJV Old Testament Hebrew Lexicon[TABLE="width: 100%"]
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[TD] Strong's Number: 02183[/TD]
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[TD="width: 50%"]Original Word[/TD]
[TD="width: 50%"]Word Origin[/TD]
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[TD="width: 50%"]!wnz[/TD]
[TD="width: 50%"]from (02181)[/TD]
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[TD="width: 50%"]Transliterated Word[/TD]
[TD="width: 50%"]TDNT Entry[/TD]
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[TD="width: 50%"]Zanuwn[/TD]
[TD="width: 50%"]TWOT - 563a[/TD]
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[TD="width: 50%"]Phonetic Spelling[/TD]
[TD="width: 50%"]Parts of Speech[/TD]
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[TD="width: 50%"]zaw-noon' [/TD]
[TD="width: 50%"]Noun Masculine [/TD]
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[TD="colspan: 2"] Definition[/TD]
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adultery, fornication, prostitution

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[TD="colspan: 2"] King James Word Usage - Total: 12[/TD]
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By trying to convince us that this passage means Idolatry you are corrupting and perverting Gods word. Ironic really.

oldthennew · Aug 14, 2014

our Lord married a whole people of whoredoms, (us).

the whole point of the story is,
'that God loves His people in spite of their whoredoms.

Agricola · Aug 14, 2014

Jason0047 said:

FAIL

[SUP]2 [/SUP]The beginning of the word of the Lord by Hosea. And the Lord said to Hosea, Go, take unto thee a wife of whoredoms and children of whoredoms: for the land hath committed great whoredom, departing from the Lord

God did not say "Go and pay for sex and endulge yourself in the pleasures of a woman" HE said "GO AND TAKE A WIFE". So how can interpret that to mean "Go and have sex with a prostitute?"

Hosea would have abstained from any sexual activity until he was married. It is obvious to most people, but then cultists are not most normal people, they are blind and will say anything to defend the cults position, just as you are doing Jason.

Jason0047 · Aug 14, 2014

KJV Dictionary Definition: whoredom

whoredom

1. Lewdness; fornication; practice of unlawful commerce with the other sex. It is applied to either sex, and to any kind of illicit commerce.
2. In Scripture, idolatry; the desertion of the worship of the true God, for the worship of idols.

Blue Letter Bible Definition: whoredom

whoredom

IV. To be unfaithful (To God).

(Expanded Definition):

(2) It is very often used figuratively of idolatry.

Hebrew Lexicon :: H2181 (KJV)

Dictionary.com Definition: whoredom

whoredom

2. Bible. (Idolatry).

Jason0047 · Aug 14, 2014

Agricola said:

FAIL

[SUP]2 [/SUP]The beginning of the word of the Lord by Hosea. And the Lord said to Hosea, Go, take unto thee a wife of whoredoms and children of whoredoms: for the land hath committed great whoredom, departing from the Lord

God did not say "Go and pay for sex and endulge yourself in the pleasures of a woman" HE said "GO AND TAKE A WIFE". So how can interpret that to mean "Go and have sex with a prostitute?"

Hosea would have abstained from any sexual activity until he was married. It is obvious to most people, but then cultists are not most normal people, they are blind and will say anything to defend the cults position, just as you are doing Jason.

Sorry. There is no fail here. If the wife was a prostitute, then by all sense and logic then the children were prostitutes, too.

4enlightment · Aug 14, 2014

2 When the Lord began to speak through Hosea, the Lord said to him, “Go, marry a promiscuous woman and have children with her, for like an adulterous wife this land is guilty of unfaithfulness to the Lord.”

8 After she had weaned Lo-Ruhamah, Gomer had another son. 9 Then the Lord said, “Call him Lo-Ammi (which means “not my people”), for you are not my people, and I am not your God.

“Rebuke your mother, rebuke her,
for she is not my wife,
and I am not her husband.
Let her remove the adulterous look from her face
and the unfaithfulness from between her breasts.
3 Otherwise I will strip her naked
and make her as bare as on the day she was born;
I will make her like a desert,
turn her into a parched land,
and slay her with thirst.
4 I will not show my love to her children,
because they are the children of adultery.
5 Their mother has been unfaithful
and has conceived them in disgrace.
She said, ‘I will go after my lovers,
who give me my food and my water,
my wool and my linen, my olive oil and my drink.’
6 Therefore I will block her path with thornbushes;
I will wall her in so that she cannot find her way.
7 She will chase after her lovers but not catch them;
she will look for them but not find them.

<em><strong>[video=youtube_share;JvjC9wWYkE8]http://youtu.be/JvjC9wWYkE8[/video]

Jason0047 · Aug 14, 2014

Modern Translations are wrong about this verse.

Jason0047 · Aug 14, 2014

Tintin said:

I will never give up in standing for the goodness of my Lord and Savior.

Agricola · Aug 14, 2014

Jason0047 said:

OH DEAR JASON

You FAILED again.

That is the wrong word, the correct word used in Hosea 1:2 IS Hebrew Lexicon Number 2183, Not 2181 which you have used to promote the Idolatry theory.

Here is the correct word you should be using

Hebrew Lexicon :: H2183 (KJV)

Outline of Biblical Usage

adultery, fornication, prostitution

KJV Translation Count — Total: 12x

[h=2]Concordance Results Using KJV[/h] Strong's Number H2183 matches the Hebrew זְנוּנִים (zanuwn ),
which occurs 12 times in 10 verses in the Hebrew concordance of the KJV

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Hos 1:2
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[TD]The beginning of the word of the LORD by Hosea. And the LORD said to Hosea, Go, take unto thee a wife of whoredoms [SUP]H2183[/SUP] and children of whoredoms: [SUP]H2183[/SUP] for the land hath committed great whoredom, departing from the LORD.
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The KJV translates Strongs H2183 in the following manner: whoredoms (12x).

Agricola · Aug 14, 2014

Jason0047 said:

Actully that should be never give up trying to defend the King James Only Cult. I have proved your threory wrong, I still want your comments on what I pointed out, that God told Hosea to marry someone not go and pay to have sex with them and that Hosea would have only had sexual relationships after he was married, so God was not telling him to have sex with a prostitute like you have claimed.

oldthennew · Aug 14, 2014

Jason0047 said:

==================================================================

Jason,

we're trying to understand 'your logic' here.

if YOUR parents were say, one a thief, and the other a murderer,
would that make yourself one or the other as well?

sometimes this can be true, but other times this is absolutely false.

didymos · Aug 14, 2014

oldthennew said:

In Hosea Israel is the prostitute, not 'us.' (actually it still is)
Hosea relationship with his 'wife' is a metafor for God's relationship with Isreal.

'Return, Israel, to the LORD your God. Your sins have been your downfall!'

(Hosea 14:1 / NIV)

[video=youtube;v4wvlRDI6lM]https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=v4wvlRDI6lM[/video]

breno785au · Aug 14, 2014

God didn't ask the prophet to indulge in fornication like the OP states, He told him to marry her which wouldn't be fornication now would it?

thecreationtutor · Aug 14, 2014

Ah, this is sad, i see why this guy posts the way he does now

Those filthy sinners right, if only they were as righteous as you right?

thecreationtutor · Aug 14, 2014

I guess, rahab must not have been a prostitute, especially if she is in the lineage of Jesus right. I don't know if you have a right view of who Jesus. is,

Being treated bad for bad theology, or being a jerk, isn't persecution

peacefulbeliever · Aug 14, 2014

Jason0047 said:

I will have to agree with Jason0047 this time . . . . a lot of time in scripture adultery, fornication, whoredom, are all used in relation of idolatry - serving other gods was considered whoring, fornicating and adultery against God.

4enlightment · Aug 14, 2014

ts says that there is no sin greater than another, but I see that people perceive that there are sins that are greater than another. People are saying why would God join a prophet with a nasty woman? Well the prophets are the instruments of the Lord and He uses them as demonstrations or to get the word out. Ruth is a descendant of Moab and which he was conceived from incest. So why did God had put that nasty woman in the bloodline of our Lord? I guess to let all the nasty women out there to know that they are welcome and not to be ashamed, and don't worry about the ones that stand at the door that's trying to prevent you from coming in...

“This is what the Lord says—
the Holy One of Israel, and its Maker:
Concerning things to come,
do you question me about my children,
or give me orders about the work of my hands?

“Who is this that obscures my plans
with words without knowledge?
3 Brace yourself like a man;
I will question you,
and you shall answer me.
4 “Where were you when I laid the earth’s foundation?
Tell me, if you understand.

Matthew 7:8 For everyone who asks receives; the one who seeks finds; and to the one who knocks, the door will be opened.

Matthew 23:13 “Woe to you, teachers of the law and Pharisees, you hypocrites! You shut the door of the kingdom of heaven in people’s faces. You yourselves do not enter, nor will you let those enter who are trying to.

p_rehbein · Aug 14, 2014

Gill's Exposition of the Entire Bible

The beginning of the word of the Lord by Hosea,.... Or "in Hosea" (i); which was internally revealed to him, and was inspired into him, by the Holy Ghost, who first spoke in him, and then by him; not that Hosea was the first of the prophets to whom the word of the Lord came; for there were Moses, Samuel, David, and others, before him; nor the first of the minor prophets, for Jonah, Joel, and Amos; are by some thought to be before him; nor the first of those contemporary with him, as the Jewish writers interpret it, which is not certain, at least not all of them; but the meaning is, that what follows is the first part of his prophecy, or what it began with; by which it appears he was put upon hard service at first, to prophesy against Israel, an idolatrous people, and to do it in such a manner as must be disagreeable to a young man:

and the Lord said to Hosea, go, take thee a wife of whoredoms and children of whoredoms; a woman given to whoredom, a notorious strumpet, one taken out of the stews, and children that were spurious and illegitimate, not born in lawful wedlock. Some think this was really done; that the prophet took a whore, and cohabited with her, or married her which, though forbidden a high priest, was not forbid to a prophet; and had it been against a law, yet the Lord commanding it made it lawful, as in the cases of Abraham's slaying his son, and the Israelites borrowing jewels of the Egyptians; but this seems not likely, since it would not only look like countenancing whoredom, which is contrary to the holy law of God; but must be very dishonourable to the prophet, and render him contemptible to the people; and, besides, would not answer the end proposed, to reprove the spiritual adultery or idolatry of Israel, but rather serve to confirm in it; for how should that appear criminal and abominable to them, which was commanded the prophet by the Lord? others think that the woman he is bid to marry, though before marriage a harlot, was afterwards reformed; but this is directly contrary to Hosea 3:1 and besides, the children born of her, whether reformed or not, yet in lawful wedlock could not be called children of whoredom; nor would the above end be answered by it, since such a person would be no fit representative of Israel committing spiritual adultery or idolatry, and continuing in it; and moreover, whether this or the former was the case, the prophecy must be many years delivering; it must be near a year before the first child was born, and the same space must be between the birth of each; so that here must be a long and frequent interruption of the prophecy, which does not seem likely: nor is it probable that he took his own wife, which is the opinion of others, and gave her the character of a whore, and his children with her, and called them children of whoredom, in order to represent and reprove the idolatry of Israel: what Maimonides (k), and the Jewish writers in general, give into, is more agreeable, that this was all done in the vision of prophecy; that it so seemed to the prophet in vision to be really done, and so he related it to the people; but this is liable to objection, that such an impure scene of things should be represented to the mind of the prophet by the Holy Spirit of God; nor can the relation of it be thought to have any good effect upon the people, who would be ready to mock at him, and reproach him for it. It seems best therefore to understand the whole as a parable, and that the prophet, in a parabolical way, is bid to represent the treachery, unfaithfulness, and spiritual adultery of the people of Israel, under the feigned name of an unchaste woman, and of children begotten in fornication; and to show unto them that their case was as if he had taken a woman out of the stews, and her bastards with her; or as if a wife married by him had defiled his bed, and brought him a spurious brood of children. So the Targum interprets it,

"go, prophesy a prophecy against the inhabitants of the idolatrous city, who add to sin:''

for the land hath committed great whoredom, departing from the Lord; or

"for the inhabitants of the land erring, erred from the worship of the Lord,''

as the Targum; that is, the inhabitants of the land of Israel have committed idolatry, which is often in Scripture signified by adultery and whoredom; as an adulterous woman deals treacherously with her husband, so these people had dealt with God, who stood in such a relation to them; see Jeremiah 3:1, this interprets the parable, and shows the reason of using the following symbols and emblems.

(i) , Sept.; in Hosea, V. L. Pagninus, Montanus, Drusius, Tarnovius. (k) Moreh Nevochim, par. 2. 46. Aben Ezra & Kimchi in loc.

Did God Tell Hosea to Marry a Prostitute?

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