not my metaphor, friend. Christ's.
have a look at Matthew 25 again.
now "redemption" in the Greek is apolutrosis - right?
meaning literally to buy back what has been forfeited, removing it from the market? as though a thing had been pawned, and you go back to the pawn shop, turn in your ticket, pay the fee, and remove it from the premises. it is no longer for sale.
the simile here is with slavery, right?
so we are no longer slaves to sin - as though on the market, ready to be handed over to whatever transgression would have mastery over us. right? for we have a new master, who has given us power to become sons and heirs with Him, by adoption, not birthright - being freely justified through our faith by His grace.
so if all mankind has received redemption, then all mankind is no longer a slave to sin - right?
this is universalism, and it is not Biblical, as far as i know. even my eyes can see those people in the world who remain in chains as it were - isn't it plain?
now i am a young man, not studied in seminary, not up on _____-ism's etc, so for sure, correct me. but i honestly don't care about Calvinism or Armenianism or _______-ism, but about the Truth
but i do not think that my basket here is of mixed fruits. the gospel i received, the salvation i received, is having been redeemed, no longer a slave to sin but to righteousness, and i am persuaded that those who have not put their trust in the atonement of Christ Jesus do not share such redemption, but still stand condemned already, slaves to iniquity and having no righteousness whereby they might be justified before God.
all mankind may have their sin propitiated, for sure. however those who do not believe, have not received - don't we agree about that?
so while atonement is universally available, it is not universally applied, not being universally believed, not being universally received, not being universally acknowledged. and without acknowledging God - it is just as though the blood had not been applied to the lintels of the doors, and so that angel will not pass over that house, but enter in with righteous judgement. yes?
how does this sound,
"limited application" ?
not so good i guess.
i understand that the language has connotation that without much thought make it sound as though the Lord's hand is shortened. it is not.
posthuman,
so if all mankind has received redemption, then all mankind is no longer a slave to sin - right?
this is universalism, and it is not Biblical, as far as i know. even my eyes can see those people in the world who remain in chains as it were - isn't it plain?
now i am a young man, not studied in seminary, not up on _____-ism's etc, so for sure, correct me. but i honestly don't care about Calvinism or Armenianism or _______-ism, but about the Truth
no man is a slave to sin except now by his own choice.
What you and others are missing, primarily because you hold to Original Sin theory, is that man was condemned to death. Man lost life, an eternal existence. Man would return to dust permanently Gen 3:19, unless Christ restores life to mankind and the world. As long as we remained under the condemnation of death, sin would be irrelevant. Now that Christ has restored life to the world, sin becomes a factor in every man's life. Now, it is a choice that has consequences.
Another way of portraying the atonement, Christ freed all men from the bondage of death and sin. This is why Christ needed to defeat death, the power of Satan, Heb 2:14 and I John 3:8.
This is explained clearly in Rom 5:15-18 and again Paul uses the same equation in I Cor 15:12-22. Vs 17 states quite clearly that if Christ does not raise all the dead, then even those who believe would perish. Faith cannot and does not grant life to man and the world. ONLY Christ the giver of Life can restore Life to the world. He did that through His Incarnation and resurrection. It has nothing to do with faith, with belief, or our relationship with Christ. He reversed the fall of man which is also why He is called the Second Adam. That comparison is shown in that same equation of I Cor 15:22.
all mankind may have their sin propitiated, for sure. however those who do not believe, have not received - don't we agree about that?
Yes, it is called a sacrifice for sin. Christ is the sacrifice for sin. There is no automatic forgiveness just because He became a sacrifice for sin. In fact, He cannot forgive sins until He is seated on God's right hand, and becomes our mediator and High Priest. He cannot and was not a High Priest on the Cross or by His death. He was the sacrifice for sin. But that is only half of the atonement, and the secondary one at that. Without His resurrection, and a sacrifice does not require a resurrection, there would be no life. He raised our mortal natures to life, an eternal existence. That now validates the sacrifice.
This is not Univeralism which holds that all men will eventually receive eternal life as well. Without redemption of all men, God could not call all men to repentance.
so while atonement is universally available, it is not universally applied, not being universally believed, not being universally received, not being universally acknowledged. and without acknowledging God -
Yes and no. Respective of the sacrifice, forgiveness of sin will ONLY occur for those that repent and confess their sin so that they might be able to have a relationship with God in this life. But respective of life, it is imposed on every human being. Do you have a choice whether or not you will be raised from the dead?