Paul the liar.
In Romans 3:7 Paul says.' For if in my lie the truth of God abounded to His glory, why am I yet judged as a sinner?"(Rom 3:7 LITV-TSP)
In Romans 3:7 Paul says.' For if in my lie the truth of God abounded to His glory, why am I yet judged as a sinner?"(Rom 3:7 LITV-TSP)
So once again I ask, "what was Paul's lie?"
Let's start in verse 3:5 this time.
Paul through the Spirit includes himself in his statement in verse five when he says, But if our unrighteousness (our lie vs. 4; our unfaithfulness; vs. 3). He is states, (speaking as a man) even through our unrighteousness; our lie; our unfaithfulnes the righteousness of God (the oracles; the Holy Writ; that to which we can be justified (upright) in our words, and we overcome in our being judged. vs.4 ) still got commended; exhibited.
So is GOD unrighteous exhibiting wrath against those who choose to live thusly?
In verse six he answers emphatically in collation with what he previously said in verse four, "That You should be justified (upright) in Your words, and will overcome in Your being judged". He answers, "Let it not be; Otherwise, how will God judge the world?"
Then in verse seven he connects what he is about to say with the Greek word "gar" to what was previously stated. This word is a primary particle; to which assigns reason (Strong's #1063) to things previously stated. More often translated "for".
So he is continuing his argument from man's perspective (vs.5 ). Reiterating what he said corporately in verse 5, but this time he is speaking in the first person. He says, "For if in my lie (my unrighteousness; my unfaithfulness through not adhering to all that which is given in the Holy Writ) the truth of God abounded to His glory, why am I yet judged as a sinner?"
And not (as we are wrongly accused, and as some report us to say), Let us do bad things so that good things may come, ( in other words why not just continue on the same course of unrighteous, unfaithfulness because the oracles; the Holy Writ; GOD's righteousness is still getting commended; promoted). And then emphatically to the man argument because GOD will judge the world (vs. 6). He condemns such thinking by saying, "The judgment of whom is just."
This is not the only place I have tried to share this. So with that being said. In trying to see someone else's argument I looked in a few reference books. Interestingly enough I could not find anything to support their argument. But to my glee I did find citations to support what was given to me. Here they are.
Henry Alford’s The Greek New Testament
Romans 3:7
7.] This follows (connected by γάρ) upon Rom_3:6, and shews that the supposition if carried out, would overthrow all God’s judgment, and (Rom_3:8) the whole moral life of man. How shall God judge the world? FOR, if the truth (faithfulness) of God abounded (was manifested, more clearly established) by means of my falsehood (unfaithfulness), to His glory (so that the result has been the setting forth of His glory), why any longer (ἔτι, this being so,—assuming the premises) am I also (i.e. as well as others,—am I to be involved in a judgment from which I ought to be exempt) judged (to be judged,—the pres. expressing the rule or habit of God’s proceeding) as a sinner?
Clarkes Commentary
Romans 3:7
Jew. For if the truth of God, etc. - But to resume my reasoning (Rom_3:5): If the faithfulness of God in keeping his promise made to our fathers is, through our unfaithfulness, made far more glorious than it otherwise would have been, why should we then be blamed for that which must redound so much to the honor of God?
From Expositor's Greek New Testament
....A Jew is the speaker, or at all events the Apostle speaks in the character of one: “if my unbelief does magnify His faithfulness, is not that all that is required? Why am I, too, like the rest of the world, whose relation to God is so different, and whose judgment is so necessary, still brought into judgment?”...
From Vincent Word Studies
Lie (ψεύσματι)
Only here in the New Testament. The expression carries us back to Rom_3:4, and is general for moral falsehood, unfaithfulness to the claims of conscience and of God, especially with reference to the proffer of salvation through Christ.
From the Cambridge Bible for Schools and Colleges
Romans 3:7
For if, &c.] Here St Paul takes up the Opponent on his own ground; speaking as a human being whose sin (e.g. a falsehood) serves to make God’s truth “abound to His glory;” i.e. be more largely manifest in a way to win Him fresh praise:—in such a case is not Paul, is not A, B, or C, equally entitled with the Jewish opponent to be excused penalty?—In the Gr. of the clause “why am I yet, &c.,” the word “I” is strongly emphatic; I also; i.e. “I, as well as my opponent.”—“Why am I yet, &c.:”—i.e. “after the recognition of the effect of my sin on the advancement of God’s glory.”—“By my lie;” lit. in my lie; i.e. “on occasion of it, in connexion with it.”
John Wesley’s Explanatory Notes
Romans 3:7
But, may the objector reply, if the truth of God hath abounded - Has been more abundantly shown. Through my lie - If my lie, that is, practice contrary to truth, conduces to the glory of God, by making his truth shine with superior advantage. Why am I still judged as a sinner - Can this be said to be any sin at all? Ought I not to do what would otherwise be evil, that so much "good may come?" To this the apostle does not deign to give a direct answer, but cuts the objector short with a severe reproof.
May GOD bless and keep you and keep us in HIS Way; Jesus Christ!! Happy Thanksgiving!!!