Law and THE Law

In Romans 3:31, in addition to there not being definite articles before the words law, there is a definite article before the word faith, i.e., the faith. So that verse says , as I read it, that we do not make law useless through the faith (i.e., the doctrine of Christ and his apostles), but we establish law because the faith is GOD's law for his people.

An exchange of "the"s? Curious indeed.

Sometimes I think the bible is meant to be obscure...on purpose...so that people can form a quick opinion about it and then argue with others who also think "I got it."
Most people are happy with the easy answers and surefire interpretations that we can get from self-assured people.

But the bible is indeed a very deep set of writings that are very difficult to assemble into a unified way of interpreting in a consistent way.

Take the issue of the law (Nomos) in Greek.

There are so many contradictory sounding things said of the law as in...

We are not under the law but under grace...yet we must fulfill the law...does faith abolish the law...no! it establishes it....etc

A big problem is the way the translators chose to leave out certain words...and add others to the text. While this might make the English sound more fluid...it all but destroys the meaning of the text.

Here is an example...

Rom. 3:31 Do we then make void the law through faith? God forbid: yea, we establish the law.

This is a problem if we consider we are no longer under the law. So what gives? Are we to pretend to understand and just ignore the problem? Why add words to the text?

The truth is that ALL covenants from God are based on law. There is no such thing as a covenant of grace.

Romans 3:31 should read (if we leave out the "the"'s that were added to the text)

"Do we make void LAW through faith? God forbid: yea, we establish LAW."

(notice no more "the"s in the corrected text.)

The New Covenant is based on LAW...a higher law...the law of faith.

So when we read of "THE LAW" we are talking about the list of commandments and ordinances from the Old Covenant. These are separated into 2 kinds of laws...the law of righteousness...and the law of holiness (Mosaic)

The law of righteousness remains in effect as it is a gauge to our human behaviour towards loving others.

But the law of holiness has been changed. Holiness is only found IN Christ Jesus. The temple ordinances and rites have now ceased....to the effect that WE are now the temple of the living God.

Romans 3:31 should read (if we leave out the "the"'s that were added to the text)

"Do we make void LAW through faith? God forbid: yea, we establish LAW."

(notice no more "the"s in the corrected text.)

Scripture Study Tips
When dissecting any verse of scripture. Ask yourself, of whom, to whom, with what words, what time, where, to what intent, with what circumstances, considering what is written before and what follows any single verse context.
^^^Myles Coverdale, Bible theologian/translator^^^

So, ask: Who is writing? Who’s it written to? What are the circumstances? What’s the context BEFORE? What's the context after?

You should never take a verse out of context & try to build a doctrine upon it.

Romans 3:

26 To declare, I say, at this time his righteousness: that he might be just, and the justifier of him which believeth in Jesus.
(NOTE: This verse declares Jesus righteous & declares Jesus the justifier of those who believe in Christ. Not those that follow/keep the Mosaic law)

27 Where is boasting then? It is excluded. By what law? of works? Nay: but by the law of faith.
(NOTE: Boasting is excluded BY FAITH not thru works)

28 Therefore we conclude that a man is justified by faith without the deeds of the law.
(NOTE: Man is justified = Declared righteous = "by faith" WITHOUT the deeds of the law).

29 Is he the God of the Jews only? is he not also of the Gentiles? Yes, of the Gentiles also:
(NOTE: He is God of BOTH, Jew & Gentile)

30 Seeing it is one God, which shall justify the circumcision by faith, and uncircumcision through faith.
(NOTE: God will justify = Declared righteous. BOTH the circumcision = JEW, by faith. And uncircumcision = GENTILES through faith also. NOT THRU LAW KEEPING!)

31 Do we then make void the law through faith? God forbid: yea, we establish the law.
(NOTE: If you'll read verse 31 in context. Its the new covenant LAW OF FAITH that's being established. Not the Mosaic law of works!)

You are making a big deal out of nothing, and you are also mistaken in that "we establish THE law" is in the Greek text. Let me show you in Rom 3:21.

CRITICAL TEXT
Νυνὶ δὲ χωρὶς νόμου δικαιοσύνη Θεοῦ πεφανέρωται, μαρτυρουμένη ὑπὸ τοῦ (the) νόμου (law) καὶ τῶν προφητῶν.

RECEIVED TEXT
Νυνὶ δὲ χωρὶς νόμου δικαιοσύνη θεοῦ πεφανέρωται μαρτυρουμένη ὑπὸ τοῦ (the) νόμου (Law) καὶ τῶν προφητῶν.

Notice that there is no difference between the Critical and the Received Texts.

"...being witnessed by the law and the prophets..."

The Law and the Prophets = The whole Tanakh (24 books of the Hebrew Bible)

There would be absolutely no confusion is Christians studied the pharase "the Law" properly. Depending on the context it can mean:

1. THE WHOLE OLD TESTAMENT (the Law and the Prophets)

2. THE WHOLE TORAH -- Genesis to Deuteronomy

3. THE LAW OF MOSES (613 laws)

4. THE TEN COMMANDMENTS (10 laws)

An exchange of "the"s? Curious indeed.

Everyone seems to have their own understanding of what law they are under and what law they aren't under.

Its because very few have an understanding of what real Christianity is.

Paul kept trying to describe it to people but people were intent back then on twisting it and perverting it, just like they do today.

Galatians 2:21 I do not frustrate the grace of God: for if righteousness come by the law, then Christ is dead in vain.

Wrong verse.

Does not matter. Same context. "law" does not stand by itself since that would be meaningless in Scripture. It is always "THE law".

Look at the Greek.

Look at the Greek.

The correct interpretation of the Bible has nothing to do with Greek or Latin or the Hebrew language. It has nothing to do with what translation you use.
It has nothing to do with king James or niv.
It has more to do with reading individual lines of scripture rather than passages or entire books.
The Bible has a way of repeating important point multiple times just in case you don’t get it the first time.
The stuff you question is milk and you should be on solid food
.