Accurately handling what rightly dividing means.

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CharliRenee

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Nov 4, 2014
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#1
Study to shew thyself approved unto God, a workman that needeth not to be ashamed, rightly dividing the word of truth.
2 Timothy 2:15 KJV


We so often discuss the rightly dividing component of that verse. I used KJV but prefer the NASB..


Be diligent to present yourself approved to God as a workman who does not need to be ashamed, accurately handling the word of truth.
2 Timothy 2:15 NASB

Don't get me wrong, I think both are saying the same thing but the second makes more sense to me as to how I interpret what rightly dividing means, in this context.

What I find perplexing is that so many seem to have come to the conclusion that the dividing is between the audiences, the Jews or the Gentiles or between the covenants. That doesn't compute, because we are either from the root of Him or grafted into Him. Either way, He came to bring us together. The message is the same, Himself.

It just doesn't make sense to me. However, my desire to find harmony amongst all the scripture is sometimes difficult for me. Not because it opposes itself but because I lack complete understanding. I trust and believe He will bring His revealing.

If we are one in Him, and that we are not to have divisions, why do we think the “rightly dividing” speaks to dividing the family of believers, with regards to what His scriptures tell us, as though a God who doesn't change has different messages, depending on who we are?

Why does rightly dividing mean to you?
 

JaumeJ

Senior Member
Jul 2, 2011
21,195
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#2
Rightly dividing is having the capacity to understand and relate the meaning of the particular text.

At just about 75, I can say with all honesty, I understand very little of the Word, but what I do understand was given me from God. I believe this is true for all who believe Jesus, Yeshua.

I certainly hope you do not planon understanding all of the Word in this age! The Father gives each of us what He, and only He, knows we need to know, and that is wonderful.

You seem to know quite a bit my dear family in Jesus...
 

John146

Senior Member
Jan 13, 2016
16,538
3,502
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#3
Study to shew thyself approved unto God, a workman that needeth not to be ashamed, rightly dividing the word of truth.
2 Timothy 2:15 KJV


We so often discuss the rightly dividing component of that verse. I used KJV but prefer the NASB..


Be diligent to present yourself approved to God as a workman who does not need to be ashamed, accurately handling the word of truth.
2 Timothy 2:15 NASB

Don't get me wrong, I think both are saying the same thing but the second makes more sense to me as to how I interpret what rightly dividing means, in this context.

What I find perplexing is that so many seem to have come to the conclusion that the dividing is between the audiences, the Jews or the Gentiles or between the covenants. That doesn't compute, because we are either from the root of Him or grafted into Him. Either way, He came to bring us together. The message is the same, Himself.

It just doesn't make sense to me. However, my desire to find harmony amongst all the scripture is sometimes difficult for me. Not because it opposes itself but because I lack complete understanding. I trust and believe He will bring His revealing.

If we are one in Him, and that we are not to have divisions, why do we think the “rightly dividing” speaks to dividing the family of believers, with regards to what His scriptures tell us, as though a God who doesn't change has different messages, depending on who we are?

Why does rightly dividing mean to you?
The Jew and the Gentile became one in Him only after the cross.

Right division is a must. The direction God gave Adam is not the same direction He gave Noah. What God gave Noah is not what He gave Abraham, etc..

As there are divisions all throughout the OT books, there are also divisions to be made in the NT books. One must ask, to whom is this book written, to whom does this doctrine apply?
 

Hevosmies

Well-known member
Sep 8, 2018
3,612
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#4
Check out the greek. This has absolutely NO hyper-dispensational undertones of separating scriptures to different groups or putting Romans to Philemon to the Church and the rest for Jews (who are also christians, uhh? thought we were ONE?)

orthotomeó: to cut straight
Original Word: ὀρθοτομέω
Part of Speech: Verb
Transliteration: orthotomeó
Phonetic Spelling: (or-thot-om-eh'-o)
Definition: to cut straight
Usage: I cut straight; met: I handle correctly, teach rightly.
 

John146

Senior Member
Jan 13, 2016
16,538
3,502
113
#5
Check out the greek. This has absolutely NO hyper-dispensational undertones of separating scriptures to different groups or putting Romans to Philemon to the Church and the rest for Jews (who are also christians, uhh? thought we were ONE?)

orthotomeó: to cut straight
Original Word: ὀρθοτομέω
Part of Speech: Verb
Transliteration: orthotomeó
Phonetic Spelling: (or-thot-om-eh'-o)
Definition: to cut straight
Usage: I cut straight; met: I handle correctly, teach rightly.
When did the Jew and Gentile become one? Before or after the cross?
 

JaumeJ

Senior Member
Jul 2, 2011
21,195
6,508
113
#7
The Good Shepherd put His two flocks together in His teaching and in the Holy Spirit.

We all know His voice and we come when He calls.

Have you ever seen shepherds working the flocks in the open pastures? Each one has a call separate from the others, and when each calls using that special call the flocks come to their own master because they know their voices.

I have seen this in action here in Spain, i Israel, In Turkey, in Greece and probably a few more countries.

We are the sheep, the Jew first and then the Gentile and we all know His wonderful voice.
 

CharliRenee

Member
Staff member
Nov 4, 2014
6,687
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#9
The Jew and the Gentile became one in Him only after the cross.

Right division is a must. The direction God gave Adam is not the same direction He gave Noah. What God gave Noah is not what He gave Abraham, etc..

As there are divisions all throughout the OT books, there are also divisions to be made in the NT books. One must ask, to whom is this book written, to whom does this doctrine apply?
I just struggle because our doctrine should be the same, to believe and receive Him. Abraham was saved by faith. Man was more primitive in the early days, so He dealt, it seems with us differently but the message is always the same, to bring His Revealing and Glory. We should all be coming to the same conclusions, eh?
 

Lanolin

Well-known member
Dec 15, 2018
23,460
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#10
I believe its rightly dividing meaning scripture cant be broken i.e one cant quote bits of scripture leaving out certain words just cos you dont agree with them. One needs to read the whole passage or verse for it to make sense.

When the hebrew manuscripts are copied they dont have the punctuation that English does. So when one reads in hebrew they kind of have to divide it correctly while reading it. Also they didnt have chapters and verse numbers. These came in later to help us by bible scholars...such as Timothy teaching the word of God to others. And of course when you read scripture out loud you dont say all the numbers of the verse each time you read it and you dont skip bits out. You read it straight through and stop when the story or letter or proverb or psalm is ended. You dont read it and stop halfway.

The Bible is meant to be read out loud, and of course studied but primarily its meant to be spoken. Thats how it reaches us..God had his prophets speak in parables and narratives so we could hear. He doesnt give us the word in soundbites expecting us to piece it all together after weve heard it.
 

John146

Senior Member
Jan 13, 2016
16,538
3,502
113
#11
I just struggle because our doctrine should be the same, to believe and receive Him. Abraham was saved by faith. Man was more primitive in the early days, so He dealt, it seems with us differently but the message is always the same, to bring His Revealing and Glory. We should all be coming to the same conclusions, eh?
The Jews were under the law. Are we? The Jews had to make a sacrifice of blood to receive forgiveness of sins, do we?
 

JaumeJ

Senior Member
Jul 2, 2011
21,195
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#12
The Jews were under the law. Are we? The Jews had to make a sacrifice of blood to receive forgiveness of sins, do we?
First, Abraham was hundreds of years befoe the law was given.

Second, ISRAEL was composed of Twelve Trives, not just the Tribe of Judah, there was no such thing as Juidaism for the country was a theocracyi governed by God with the earthy caretakers, the Levitical Priests......
 

John146

Senior Member
Jan 13, 2016
16,538
3,502
113
#13
First, Abraham was hundreds of years befoe the law was given.

Second, ISRAEL was composed of Twelve Trives, not just the Tribe of Judah, there was no such thing as Juidaism for the country was a theocracyi governed by God with the earthy caretakers, the Levitical Priests......
The nation of Israel under the law had to make blood sacrifices for their sins to be forgiven. What about you and I?
 

CharliRenee

Member
Staff member
Nov 4, 2014
6,687
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#14
I believe its rightly dividing meaning scripture cant be broken i.e one cant quote bits of scripture leaving out certain words just cos you dont agree with them. One needs to read the whole passage or verse for it to make sense.

When the hebrew manuscripts are copied they dont have the punctuation that English does. So when one reads in hebrew they kind of have to divide it correctly while reading it. Also they didnt have chapters and verse numbers. These came in later to help us by bible scholars...such as Timothy teaching the word of God to others. And of course when you read scripture out loud you dont say all the numbers of the verse each time you read it and you dont skip bits out. You read it straight through and stop when the story or letter or proverb or psalm is ended. You dont read it and stop halfway.

The Bible is meant to be read out loud, and of course studied but primarily its meant to be spoken. Thats how it reaches us..God had his prophets speak in parables and narratives so we could hear. He doesnt give us the word in soundbites expecting us to piece it all together after weve heard it.
Thank you. I need to start reading outloud. I do agree that it is important to read the scripture in its entirety.
 

Lanolin

Well-known member
Dec 15, 2018
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#16
Jesus did say I came not to bring peace but division...

In that context its separating out the good from the wicked.
But in Timothys case it was about scripture, and back then he would have been teaching from the OT as the new testament letters were still circulating round the churches and the gospel being spoken by the apostles who had eye witnessed Jesus resurrection.

Jesus did open scripture to others to point out that all of the prophecies were referring to Him. They just could not see it before. So what Timothy was called to do by Paul is to show others they could find Jesus in the scriptures God had already given them.
 

JaumeJ

Senior Member
Jul 2, 2011
21,195
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#17
The nation of Israel under the law had to make blood sacrifices for their sins to be forgiven. What about you and I?
According the the Word Gntiles and Israel are now one in Yeshua, the Messiah. It seems you have never studied the Word, so please refrain from coming to me or others with your unfounded ideas that ahve nothing to do iwht the Word.
 
7

7seasrekeyed

Guest
#18
When did the Jew and Gentile become one? Before or after the cross?

Abraham was saved by faith. God accounted his faith as righteousness

I've said it before; I'll say it again

doctrine does not save and that's good cause yours is not biblical

going by your logic. everyone should both obey the law and be saved by faith if Jew and Gentile became one

why did God create Israel in the first place? please let us know when you think you have the answer
 
7

7seasrekeyed

Guest
#19
So when Jesus addresses the Jews, He’s not talking to the Gentile dogs.

even the dogs got to lick up the crumbs

Jesus never turned a Gentile away who came to Him believing...which is more than we can say about the religious sects who LOVED to divide the word up while telling everyone Abraham was their father

Jesus said the devil was their father
 

John146

Senior Member
Jan 13, 2016
16,538
3,502
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#20
According the the Word Gntiles and Israel are now one in Yeshua, the Messiah. It seems you have never studied the Word, so please refrain from coming to me or others with your unfounded ideas that ahve nothing to do iwht the Word.
Please don’t insult. Thank you.

We became one after the cross. Naturally, the directions befor the cross, most of them are not for the body of Christ, since the body of Christ was in mystery form.

Answer the question, did Israel under the law have to make blood sacrifices for forgiveness of sins?