Are gentiles included in God’s communication with Israel?

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Blik

Senior Member
Dec 6, 2016
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#1
Many people say God did not include gentiles in His instructions to Israel. I think God makes no difference between Jews and gentiles. God tells us He sends the same rain on both and has the same laws for both.

Exodus 12:49 There shall be one law for the native and for the stranger who sojourns among you.

Leviticus 24:22 You shall have the same rule for the sojourner and for the native, for I am the Lord your God.

Yet scripture also tells us that God is communicating with Israel as He sends instructions. What do you think and what scripture do you base your thoughts?
 

Dino246

Senior Member
Jun 30, 2015
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#2
Many people say God did not include gentiles in His instructions to Israel. I think God makes no difference between Jews and gentiles. God tells us He sends the same rain on both and has the same laws for both.

Exodus 12:49 There shall be one law for the native and for the stranger who sojourns among you.

Leviticus 24:22 You shall have the same rule for the sojourner and for the native, for I am the Lord your God.

Yet scripture also tells us that God is communicating with Israel as He sends instructions. What do you think and what scripture do you base your thoughts?
The two verses that you quoted explain the situation. I bolded the key words.

There is one law for "you" (Israel) and for the non-Israelites who sojourn among Israel. The Law was not given to the gentiles who did not sojourn among Israel.

The Law was for Israel, not for the gentiles. Gentile Christians were never under the Law; not before salvation, and not after.
 
C

cuz

Guest
#3
who is Israel
John 1:11 He came to that which was his own, but his own did not receive him. 12 Yet to all who did receive him, to those who believed in his name, he gave the right to become children of God— 13 children born not of natural descent, nor of human decision or a husband’s will, but born of God.

rom 19:6 It is not as though God’s word had failed. For not all who are descended from Israel are Israel. 7 Nor because they are his descendants are they all Abraham’s children.

so what is a gentile ?

Romans 10:12
For there is no difference between the Jew and the Greek: for the same Lord over all is rich unto all that call upon him.



if we have the same lord ? would he talk to them in the same way ?
 
C

cuz

Guest
#4
was Gods childeren ever given the law ?
1tim 1:8 We know that the law is good if one uses it properly. 9 We also know that the law is made not for the righteous but for lawbreakers and rebels, the ungodly and sinful, the unholy and irreligious, for those who kill their fathers or mothers, for murderers,

21 Tell me, you who want to be under the law, are you not aware of what the law says? 22 For it is written that Abraham had two sons, one by the slave woman and the other by the free woman. 23 His son by the slave woman was born according to the flesh, but his son by the free woman was born as the result of a divine promise.

24 These things are being taken figuratively: The women represent two covenants. One covenant is from Mount Sinai and bears children who are to be slaves: This is Hagar. 25 Now Hagar stands for Mount Sinai in Arabia and corresponds to the present city of Jerusalem, because she is in slavery with her children. 26 But the Jerusalem that is above is free, and she is our mother. 27 For it is written:

“Be glad, barren woman,
you who never bore a child;
shout for joy and cry aloud,
you who were never in labor;
because more are the children of the desolate woman
than of her who has a husband.”[e]
28 Now you, brothers and sisters, like Isaac, are children of promise. 29 At that time the son born according to the flesh persecuted the son born by the power of the Spirit. It is the same now. 30 But what does Scripture say? “Get rid of the slave woman and her son, for the slave woman’s son will never share in the inheritance with the free woman’s son.”[f] 31 Therefore, brothers and sisters, we are not children of the slave woman, but of the free woman.








For it is written that Abraham had two sons, one by the slave woman and the other by the free woman. (( we are from the free )))

His son by the slave woman was born according to the flesh (((( those under law )))))

his son by the free woman was born as the result of a divine promise ((((( Jesus born of the spirit

The women represent two covenants. One covenant is from Mount Sinai and bears children who are to be slaves: This is Hagar
Exodus 19
law given At Mount Sinai
The Ten Commandments


Now Hagar stands for Mount Sinai in Arabia and corresponds to the present city of Jerusalem, because she is in slavery with her children ((((((Jerusalem that was destroyed in 70 AD ))))))))

But the Jerusalem that is above is free, and she is our mother. ((((((those in Christ Jesus )))))))))))
 

Blik

Senior Member
Dec 6, 2016
7,312
2,424
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#5
who is Israel
John 1:11 He came to that which was his own, but his own did not receive him. 12 Yet to all who did receive him, to those who believed in his name, he gave the right to become children of God— 13 children born not of natural descent, nor of human decision or a husband’s will, but born of God.

rom 19:6 It is not as though God’s word had failed. For not all who are descended from Israel are Israel. 7 Nor because they are his descendants are they all Abraham’s children.

so what is a gentile ?

Romans 10:12
For there is no difference between the Jew and the Greek: for the same Lord over all is rich unto all that call upon him.



if we have the same lord ? would he talk to them in the same way ?
There is scripture telling us that all who have faith in the Lord is Israel, but I don't have that scripture at my fingertips.
 
Jan 12, 2019
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#6
Many people say God did not include gentiles in His instructions to Israel. I think God makes no difference between Jews and gentiles. God tells us He sends the same rain on both and has the same laws for both.

Exodus 12:49 There shall be one law for the native and for the stranger who sojourns among you.

Leviticus 24:22 You shall have the same rule for the sojourner and for the native, for I am the Lord your God.

Yet scripture also tells us that God is communicating with Israel as He sends instructions. What do you think and what scripture do you base your thoughts?
During the OT, Gentiles must be a blessing to the Jews, or be a Jew, in order to be blessed by God.

At that time, we were without Christ and without hope in this world (Ephesians 2:11-12)
 

Blik

Senior Member
Dec 6, 2016
7,312
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#7
During the OT, Gentiles must be a blessing to the Jews, or be a Jew, in order to be blessed by God.

At that time, we were without Christ and without hope in this world (Ephesians 2:11-12)
That is not in the bible I have, it does not say no man was saved from death until Christ. The sacrificial system is explained well in my scripture, and God's grace is explained in my OT. Moses did not go to hell in my bible, but in Matt. 27:51-53 it speaks of Moses walking the streets of Jerusalem when the curtain split at the time of Christ's crucifixion.
 
Jan 12, 2019
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#8
That is not in the bible I have, it does not say no man was saved from death until Christ. The sacrificial system is explained well in my scripture, and God's grace is explained in my OT. Moses did not go to hell in my bible, but in Matt. 27:51-53 it speaks of Moses walking the streets of Jerusalem when the curtain split at the time of Christ's crucifixion.
Which part are you disagreeing with? Your points are not addressing any of mine
 

gb9

Senior Member
Jan 18, 2011
11,707
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#9
Which part are you disagreeing with? Your points are not addressing any of mine
get used to that. judeaizers will only have very controlled conversation, and will not touch certain parts of Scripture.
 

Blik

Senior Member
Dec 6, 2016
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#10
During the OT, Gentiles must be a blessing to the Jews, or be a Jew, in order to be blessed by God.

At that time, we were without Christ and without hope in this world (Ephesians 2:11-12)
I disagree that the world was without hope before Christ. I read about grace, hope, and forgiveness in the OT. God created the world and God looked at it and it was good. The first thing that God did for us, after the fall, was to create a way of salvation and that salvation was Christ who was symbolized and was powerful before the birth in Bethlehem.
 

Nehemiah6

Senior Member
Jul 18, 2017
24,340
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#11
Yet scripture also tells us that God is communicating with Israel as He sends instructions. What do you think and what scripture do you base your thoughts?
Israel was meant to be an instrument in God's hands for the salvation of all humanity (Rom 9). As God already told them, there was nothing special about them. Regardless, because of Abraham, they were given a solemn responsibility (which they failed to fulfil).

1 I say the truth in Christ, I lie not, my conscience also bearing me witness in the Holy Ghost,
2 That I have great heaviness and continual sorrow in my heart.
3 For I could wish that myself were accursed from Christ for my brethren, my kinsmen according to the flesh:
4 Who are Israelites; to whom pertaineth
[1] the adoption, and [2] the glory, and [3] the covenants, and [4] the giving of the law, and [5] the service of God, and [6] the promises;
5
[7] Whose are the fathers, and [8] of whom as concerning the flesh Christ came, who is over all, God blessed for ever. Amen.

We find a list of eight important things which were brought into the world through Israel, the final and ultimate one being Christ -- who is God blessed forever -- and who came unto His own and his own received Him not.
 

Dino246

Senior Member
Jun 30, 2015
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#12
There is scripture telling us that all who have faith in the Lord is Israel, but I don't have that scripture at my fingertips.
Gentiles who by faith in Christ are grafted into "spiritual" Israel are still not the ethnic Israel to whom the Law was given.
 
Jan 12, 2019
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#13
I disagree that the world was without hope before Christ. I read about grace, hope, and forgiveness in the OT. God created the world and God looked at it and it was good. The first thing that God did for us, after the fall, was to create a way of salvation and that salvation was Christ who was symbolized and was powerful before the birth in Bethlehem.
That means you disagree with what Paul was saying in Ephesians 2:11-12 when it was so clearly stated?

What do you think Paul meant by that passage then?
 

Blik

Senior Member
Dec 6, 2016
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#14
That means you disagree with what Paul was saying in Ephesians 2:11-12 when it was so clearly stated?

What do you think Paul meant by that passage then?
How in the world could you manage make believing that God has been God since creation to be a belief that Christ did not die for our sins? If you truly do not believe in the God that we are told of in Psalms, if you believe that the God told of in the OT that is our God today, I am sorry for you. God created you, loves you, and is all goodness. God gave you Christ, and Christ was from the beginning.
 
Jan 12, 2019
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#15
How in the world could you manage make believing that God has been God since creation to be a belief that
Christ did not die for our sins? If you truly do not believe in the God that we are told of in Psalms, if you believe that the God told of in the OT that is our God today, I am sorry for you. God created you, loves you, and is all goodness. God gave you Christ, and Christ was from the beginning.
Again, you are making silly conclusions on what I believe in, and not addressing my point.

Do you need me to quote for you that passage from Ephesians for you to focus your attention on?
 

Blik

Senior Member
Dec 6, 2016
7,312
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#16
Again, you are making silly conclusions on what I believe in, and not addressing my point.

Do you need me to quote for you that passage from Ephesians for you to focus your attention on?
We are not communicating, then. You are saying that if I believe in hope, grace, and forgiveness of God, as we are told of it in the OT, then I disagree with scripture telling us of the forgiveness of Christ, and I respond that believing in all we are told of God does not make a statement of not believing in the power of Christ for salvation. Is this communicating?
 
Jan 12, 2019
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#17
We are not communicating, then. You are saying that if I believe in hope, grace, and forgiveness of God, as we are told of it in the OT, then I disagree with scripture telling us of the forgiveness of Christ, and I respond that believing in all we are told of God does not make a statement of not believing in the power of Christ for salvation. Is this communicating?
This discussion thread is about how God viewed Gentiles in the OT, after God called Abraham and covenanted exclusively with the Jews only right?

Since when did it transformed into a discussion about forgiveness and salvation thru Christ?
 

Blik

Senior Member
Dec 6, 2016
7,312
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#18
This discussion thread is about how God viewed Gentiles in the OT, after God called Abraham and covenanted exclusively with the Jews only right?

Since when did it transformed into a discussion about forgiveness and salvation thru Christ?
Since yoyu referred to Ephesians 2.
 

Blik

Senior Member
Dec 6, 2016
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#20
So how do you link Ephesians 2:11-12 into what you are claiming?
'i m claiming". What do you understand that I am claiming? You accused me of not believing Paul, that is what YOU are claiming, I am claiming that God is our Holy God the same Forever giving grace, hope, and forgiveness. Now, what is your objection to that? The post is over a difference I see in opinions about God including gentiles in the people in the people He communicated with in the OT. I would like to have the people who think God only communicated with Jews in the OT explain who they think this. I think God has always accepted anyone who accepts Him and give scripture backing that thought up.

In Ephesians it speaks of people who accept fleshly circumcision, and Christ's salvation and I'm accused of not believing Paul if I believe in God's grace, hope, and forgiveness.