The Puritans

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calibob

Sinner saved by grace
May 29, 2018
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#21
Yes but they spun off the Puritans and founded Plymouth Colony after coming over on the Mayflower. Here is the first paragraph in that Wikipedia article:

The Pilgrims or Pilgrim Fathers were the English settlers who established the Plymouth Colony in Plymouth, Massachusetts. Their leadership came from the religious congregations of Brownists, or Separatist Puritans, who had fled religious persecution in England for the tolerance of 17th-century Holland in the Netherlands. They held Puritan Calvinist religious beliefs but, unlike most other Puritans, they maintained that their congregations should separate from the English state church.
Kind of reminds me of, Amish & Hutterites who are Anabaptists that sort of got lost in a cultish time warp.
 

Deade

Called of God
Dec 17, 2017
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yeshuaofisrael.org
#22
I wonder if any of them who came to North America where truly practicing Christianity, maybe there’s somewhere in the New Testament about it’s ok to own someone else.

Well JamOn, the closest you are going to find to a group that completely rejected the Roman Catholic doctrine will be the Waldensians. There are some videos that present their development all the way back to Constantine's day. You find it:
HERE
 

KhedetOrthos

Active member
Dec 13, 2019
284
158
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#23
Its recorded in history that before Catholicism there were independent Christian churches that soundly believed the bible. The puritans were among these. There are other names also given to different groups of Christians that were around from before Catholicism that remained faithful
When do you think Roman Catholicism arose?

What year do you think the Bible as we know it today came to be?

What year was the printing press invented, allowing books (including the Bible) to be more easily produced and distributed?

How did Christians who were illiterate, a common thing for centuries of human history, become “bible believers” without being able to read?

...some questions to ponder.
 

calibob

Sinner saved by grace
May 29, 2018
8,268
5,510
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Anaheim, Cali.
#24
I wonder if any of them who came to North America where truly practicing Christianity, maybe there’s somewhere in the New Testament about it’s ok to own someone else.
All through both testaments. In fact 30 pieces of silver was the fee for the accidental man slaughter of a slave. The founders however rarely practiced biblical slavery. But that's a different study.
 

oyster67

Senior Member
May 24, 2014
11,887
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#25
I wonder if any of them who came to North America where truly practicing Christianity, maybe there’s somewhere in the New Testament about it’s ok to own someone else.
Philemon
 

oyster67

Senior Member
May 24, 2014
11,887
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#26
1:10 I beseech thee for my son Onesimus, whom I have begotten in my bonds:
1:11 Which in time past was to thee unprofitable, but now profitable to thee and to me:
1:12 Whom I have sent again: thou therefore receive him, that is, mine own bowels:
1:13 Whom I would have retained with me, that in thy stead he might have ministered unto me in the bonds of the gospel:
1:14 But without thy mind would I do nothing; that thy benefit should not be as it were of necessity, but willingly.
1:15 For perhaps he therefore departed for a season, that thou shouldest receive him for ever;
1:16 Not now as a servant, but above a servant, a brother beloved, specially to me, but how much more unto thee, both in the flesh, and in the Lord?
1:17 If thou count me therefore a partner, receive him as myself.
1:18 If he hath wronged thee, or oweth [thee] ought, put that on mine account;
1:19 I Paul have written [it] with mine own hand, I will repay [it]: albeit I do not say to thee how thou owest unto me even thine own self besides.
 

calibob

Sinner saved by grace
May 29, 2018
8,268
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Anaheim, Cali.
#27
When do you think Roman Catholicism arose?

What year do you think the Bible as we know it today came to be?

What year was the printing press invented, allowing books (including the Bible) to be more easily produced and distributed?

How did Christians who were illiterate, a common thing for centuries of human history, become “bible believers” without being able to read?

...some questions to ponder.
About 312? AD Emperor Caesar Constantine saw a cloud that looked like a cross and vowed if he won the next battle he would make Christianity the official religion of Rome.

It took a while to sort throungh the various texts including Gnostic and Apocryphal texts to develop the official Cannon.

Gutenberg invented the printing press and printed the first mass produced Bibles about 1492. It changed the world!

The Hebrew males were required to read all 5 books of the Tora before they were considered to be men by the time Jesus was born. Educated Greeks Like Luke could read but the rest was word of mouth and/or dogma/tradition.
 

KhedetOrthos

Active member
Dec 13, 2019
284
158
43
#28
About 312? AD Emperor Caesar Constantine saw a cloud that looked like a cross and vowed if he won the next battle he would make Christianity the official religion of Rome.
You‘re roughly correct in your description of the conversion of Constantine.

However, Roman Catholicism did not began till 1054AD when the Church of Rome severed ties with and excommunicated the rest of the Christian world. Virtually everything that is known in popular culture with regards to Roman Catholic teaching (celibate priests, the immaculate conception of Mary, Mary as a co redeemer, purgatory, selling indulgences, banning the reading of the Bible without a license, the infallibility of the pope, etc) occurred after the a Roman church fell into schism and separated itself from the rest of Christendom.

Meanwhile, the other churches founded by Jesus and the apostles continued on, missionaries to places as far away as a Russia, India, Japan, and Alaska.
 
Jun 10, 2019
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#29
your right it’s in bible, though should it have been continued and for how long, the original folks that came to north America to express freedom of religion while others just wanted freedom in general seems no one really was fighting for human equality in those days. similar to today modern slavery is a multibillion-dollar industry with estimates of up to $150 billion each year. International Justice Mission estimated that roughly 40.3 million individuals are currently caught in the slave trade industry.
 

KhedetOrthos

Active member
Dec 13, 2019
284
158
43
#31
It took a while to sort throungh the various texts including Gnostic and Apocryphal texts to develop the official Cannon.
Correct. The Bible as we know it wasn’t available till AD 363, the council of Laodicea. That’s nine full biblical generations of Christians who lived and died without having the ability to be Bible believes as we envision them today, they simply didn’t have access to the book.

Gutenberg invented the printing press and printed the first mass produced Bibles about 1492. It changed the world!
...it sparked the reformation and changed life in the patriarchate of Rome by enabling believers to shine a spotlight on several hundred years of innovation by Roman popes as they increasingly departed from the faith once delivered to the saints...a process that continues to this day. It didn’t have the same effect on the rest of Christendom.

The Hebrew males were required to read all 5 books of the Tora before they were considered to be men by the time Jesus was born. Educated Greeks Like Luke could read but the rest was word of mouth and/or dogma/tradition.
Correct regarding the Greeks, but I am not sure here you got this idea about literacy in Israel.

https://faculty.biu.ac.il/~barilm/articles/to_check/illitera.html


C. Percentage of literacy in the Land of Israel
Assessing the literacy rate in modern society is very easily accomplished but the answer to this question in antiquity is the other way around. Nonetheless, this percentage is reflected in one of the rules in Soferim 11:2 (ed. Higger, p. 218):

A town in which there is only one who reads; he stands up, reads (the Torah), and sits down, he stands up, reads and sits down, even seven times.​
In other words, in some towns there was only one person who could read the Torah, which is a highly (Hebrew) religious reading.25 This rule appears also in t. Megilathough with a slight difference: instead of 'town' it says there: 'a synagogue of which there is only', etc.26 However, this minor difference in the text has no significance since in the small towns in the Land of Israel there usually was one synagogue only, such as in Korazim, Beit-Shearim, and so forth. That is to say that the meaning of that rule was the same even though there was a textual difference. Calculating the balance between males and females, taking into consideration that female literacy rate is always lower than the male rate leads to the idea of there being one reader only in various places. If the fact is not overlooked that in all the synagogues that have been unearthed there was place for more than 50 people, the conclusion must be reached that while issuing that rule the Tanna was speaking of a town where the literacy rate was approximately 1 percent (if not lower).

It may be argued that the Tanna ruled in a unique case, but it seems that usually the Tannaim did not speak of rare cases. On the contrary, most if not all, of the cases studied show that the rules of the Tannaim played their role in people's lives.27 Of course, it does not mean that in all rural places there was such literacy, but, on the other hand, if there were towns with 1% literacy, then the literacy of all the towns was not higher than 5% (at most). Therefore, taking into consideration the above rule, together with the fact that there are rules that reflect a zero literacy rate in the rural areas lead to the assumption of a low rate of literacy in the whole population. Even if we assume that in cities (as happens all over the world in urban areas in comparison to rural areas), such as Tiberias, for example, the literacy rate was double and even triple in comparison with the towns, still the figures of literacy are around 2-15%. With the assumption that the rural population was around 70% (with 0% literacy), 20% of urban population (with 1-5% literacy), and 10% of highly urban population (with 2-15% literacy), the total population literacy is still very low. Thus, it is no exaggeration to say that the total literacy rate in the Land of Israel at that time (of Jews only, of course), was probably less than 3%.

At first glance this figure looks quite low, and maybe too low. However, in a traditional society, knowing how to read was not a necessity: neither for economic reasons, nor for intellectual ones. On the contrary. Why should a farmer send his son to learn how to read when it entails a waste of working time (=money)? Why should he himself learn how to read if his culture is based on oral tradition (though with a written Torah)? According to the Torah, there is no need to read or write, except for writing the Mezuza, Tefilin, and the Torah itself. However, for these purposes there was always a scribe, so a Jew in antiquity could fulfill the commandments of the Torah while being illiterate. Not only that, but 3% of the total population seems to be high in comparison with other cultures. In ancient Egypt, a land with a lot of scribes, only half a percent were literate.28 Now, even if it is taken into consideration that training in hieroglyphs takes much more time than script with some 22 symbols, still the conclusion of the extent of literacy in a neighboring country some millennia later with literacy rates that are some six times larger than its predecessor, seems quite plausible.“

According to the growth processes in population and urbanization as mentioned above, it may be surmised that before the beginning of these processes, in the days of the Maccabees and at the end of the 'biblical' period, the literacy rate of the Jewish people was 1.5% if not lower. Nevertheless, if the conclusion seems farfetched, it can be rejected only by cogent arguments.”

I don’t say these things to undermine anyone’s faith but to strengthen it. Scripture is very important to the life of the believer and we never accept tradition in contradiction to it. But that having been said, we cannot build a house on historical sand.
 
L

Locoponydirtman

Guest
#32
Who were they and why were they exiled?

The Puritan’s Bible: The Bible every Puritan family had in their home was not the KJV of 1609 or 1611. The Bible which they carried was the Geneva Bible. The Geneva Bible was the most widely read and influential English Bible of the 16th and 17th centuries, which was printed from 1560 to 1644 in over 200 different printings. (co Christianity.com)

King James had the Bibles printed under his on authority and in his name to reinforce the Authority of royalty and contradict the radicalization by the Puritans that opposed obedience to perceived human authority and rulers. They only submitted to God according the scriptures that they studied. The King and the Pope had no ethical authority over true believers.

"Puritans" had been a name of ridicule first used during the reign of Queen Elizabeth. These were Christians who wanted the Church of England purified of any liturgy, ceremony, or practices which were not found in Scripture. The Bible was their sole authority, and with these beliefs, they believed it applied to every area and level of life.

Puritans Arrive in America

First came the Pilgrims in the 1620s. They were followed by thousands of Puritans in the 1630s, and these Puritans left their mark on their new land, becoming the most dynamic Christian force in the American colonies. Back in England, the Puritans had been people of means and political influence, but King Charles would not tolerate their attempts to reform the Church of England. Persecution mounted. To many, there seemed no hope but to leave England. Perhaps in America, they could establish a colony whose government, society and church were all based on the Bible. "New England" could become a light Old England could follow out of the darkness of corruption.
Don't forget the anti papist notes of the Geneva Bible. Which is another reason that James wanted to get rid of it.
 

Nehemiah6

Senior Member
Jul 18, 2017
24,167
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#33
Yes but they spun off the Puritans and founded Plymouth Colony after coming over on the Mayflower. Here is the first paragraph in that Wikipedia article

That is quite incorrect. The Puritans came after the Pilgrims.
 

Nehemiah6

Senior Member
Jul 18, 2017
24,167
12,764
113
#35
I wonder if any of them who came to North America where truly practicing Christianity, maybe there’s somewhere in the New Testament about it’s ok to own someone else.
You are now getting a little confused. Slavery started in Virginia, and was primarily in the Southern states. Those people had nothing to do with Pilgrims and Puritans. And the Pilgrims treated the Indians with respect and kept good relations with them.
 

calibob

Sinner saved by grace
May 29, 2018
8,268
5,510
113
Anaheim, Cali.
#36
Correct. The Bible as we know it wasn’t available till AD 363, the council of Laodicea.



...it sparked the reformation and changed life in the patriarchate of Rome by enabling believers to shine a spotlight on several hundred years of innovation by Roman popes as they increasingly departed from the faith once delivered to the saints...a process that continues to this day. It didn’t have the same effect on the rest of Christendom.



Correct regarding the Greeks, but I am not sure here you got this idea about literacy in Israel.

https://faculty.biu.ac.il/~barilm/articles/to_check/illitera.html


C. Percentage of literacy in the Land of Israel
Assessing the literacy rate in modern society is very easily accomplished but the answer to this question in antiquity is the other way around. Nonetheless, this percentage is reflected in one of the rules in Soferim 11:2 (ed. Higger, p. 218):

A town in which there is only one who reads; he stands up, reads (the Torah), and sits down, he stands up, reads and sits down, even seven times.​
In other words, in some towns there was only one person who could read the Torah, which is a highly (Hebrew) religious reading.25 This rule appears also in t. Megilathough with a slight difference: instead of 'town' it says there: 'a synagogue of which there is only', etc.26 However, this minor difference in the text has no significance since in the small towns in the Land of Israel there usually was one synagogue only, such as in Korazim, Beit-Shearim, and so forth. That is to say that the meaning of that rule was the same even though there was a textual difference. Calculating the balance between males and females, taking into consideration that female literacy rate is always lower than the male rate leads to the idea of there being one reader only in various places. If the fact is not overlooked that in all the synagogues that have been unearthed there was place for more than 50 people, the conclusion must be reached that while issuing that rule the Tanna was speaking of a town where the literacy rate was approximately 1 percent (if not lower).

It may be argued that the Tanna ruled in a unique case, but it seems that usually the Tannaim did not speak of rare cases. On the contrary, most if not all, of the cases studied show that the rules of the Tannaim played their role in people's lives.27 Of course, it does not mean that in all rural places there was such literacy, but, on the other hand, if there were towns with 1% literacy, then the literacy of all the towns was not higher than 5% (at most). Therefore, taking into consideration the above rule, together with the fact that there are rules that reflect a zero literacy rate in the rural areas lead to the assumption of a low rate of literacy in the whole population. Even if we assume that in cities (as happens all over the world in urban areas in comparison to rural areas), such as Tiberias, for example, the literacy rate was double and even triple in comparison with the towns, still the figures of literacy are around 2-15%. With the assumption that the rural population was around 70% (with 0% literacy), 20% of urban population (with 1-5% literacy), and 10% of highly urban population (with 2-15% literacy), the total population literacy is still very low. Thus, it is no exaggeration to say that the total literacy rate in the Land of Israel at that time (of Jews only, of course), was probably less than 3%.

At first glance this figure looks quite low, and maybe too low. However, in a traditional society, knowing how to read was not a necessity: neither for economic reasons, nor for intellectual ones. On the contrary. Why should a farmer send his son to learn how to read when it entails a waste of working time (=money)? Why should he himself learn how to read if his culture is based on oral tradition (though with a written Torah)? According to the Torah, there is no need to read or write, except for writing the Mezuza, Tefilin, and the Torah itself. However, for these purposes there was always a scribe, so a Jew in antiquity could fulfill the commandments of the Torah while being illiterate. Not only that, but 3% of the total population seems to be high in comparison with other cultures. In ancient Egypt, a land with a lot of scribes, only half a percent were literate.28 Now, even if it is taken into consideration that training in hieroglyphs takes much more time than script with some 22 symbols, still the conclusion of the extent of literacy in a neighboring country some millennia later with literacy rates that are some six times larger than its predecessor, seems quite plausible.“

According to the growth processes in population and urbanization as mentioned above, it may be surmised that before the beginning of these processes, in the days of the Maccabees and at the end of the 'biblical' period, the literacy rate of the Jewish people was 1.5% if not lower. Nevertheless, if the conclusion seems farfetched, it can be rejected only by cogent arguments.”
I was taught about 35 years ago that reading the Tora was the test for manhood and that's where Bar Mitzvas' came from.

The printing press was easy, 7th grade print shop.

Having been raised Catholic we were taught that Catholocisim has been around since Peter. I later figured out that was a lie. I remembered Constantine, That was Christianity in general. The Order of the RCC in my area was the 'Immaculate Heart' they Worshiped Mary and told us that we should pray to her so she could pray to Jesus for us, and that Jesus couldn't hear the prayers of sinners until after confession, penance and Communion. Until the next sin that is. That was about 47 years ago, I'm 65.
 
Jun 10, 2019
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#37
You are now getting a little confused. Slavery started in Virginia, and was primarily in the Southern states. Those people had nothing to do with Pilgrims and Puritans. And the Pilgrims treated the Indians with respect and kept good relations with them.
Yes the first slave ship to Virginia Jamestown to be exact was in 1619 and later other ships to Plymouth cape cod the New England area was built upon slavery. slavery was going on before Jamestown and cape cod. there wasn’t any fuss from pilgrims nor puritans about the use of slavery especially in the beginning it was the normal back then.

the English the Dutch and Spain where deep into the trade, what you mentioned about the southern states came much later after the thirteen colonies. speaking of the south, the state which is Florida founded by the Spanish around 1500 long before the first settlers to Virginia or Plymouth used slavery in that area.

the Pilgrims and the Wampanoags relationship was based mainly on diplomacy and trade but that did last long as all. it wasn’t so much on handshakes and hey nieghbor how are you doing.
 
Jun 10, 2019
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#38
here’s a photo of those amount of slaves among pilgrims and puritans.

0D433196-8407-430F-98C8-C78D3B647F80.jpeg
 
Jun 10, 2019
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#39
I don’t think any of those people rather puritans or pilgrims used sound teaching, they came from slave trading country’s and welcome it in North America and even native Americans we’re sold into slavery after the colonists got established they were just like any other lawless rebellious clan before leaving England and after

1 Tim 1:10
9We realize that law is not enacted for the righteous, but for the lawless and rebellious, for the ungodly and sinful, for the unholy and profane, for killers of father or mother, for murderers, 10for the sexually immoral,for homosexuals, for slave traders and liars and perjurers, and for anyone else who is averse to sound teaching
 
Aug 10, 2019
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Canada
#40
Yes, it seems the seeds of the various reformation movements were germinating right from the start with the central issue being where the seat of authority resteed....Could one enter into relationship directly with God, or could the great unwashed only access the divine by subjecting themselves to the authority of a bishop and the clergy. It was a Roman structure that won out in the end...even the Pontif, borrowed from the old Roman Pagan Pontificate