What if Daniel did have a gap between the 69th and 70th weeks?

I know some do say this, I was taught this, and at one time thought this was true

But I think we see in romans 9 - 11 that the OT prophesied Israel would reject, and a people who were not his would be called his (gentiles) and other things,

I think God knew it all along, The gap in Dan 9 just further proves it was Gods plan all along.

Has already happened.
When the zealots took over the temple and used it as a fortress.
The. Temple was destroyed and will never be again, because Aaron's staff is gone, the Ark of the covenant is gone, the veil is torn too to bottom the Holy of Holies can only exist in Christ. Even if someone built a replica of the temple today it would not be the temple, not would it be sanctified by God. In fact it would be an abomination, so how could an abomination stand in the Holy place if the Holy place is in Christ alone, and can never be outside of Christ?

temple being destroyed

and a pagan idol standing in a holy place for all to see

are two different things

Daniel was told both would occur. But not at the same time

and you keep taking this back to a salvation thing, it is not

Prophecy is a look into the future of events that will occur

If it is built again? Scripture says it will.

there is no if..

They can build 20 temples there will never be another "Holy place".
From Daniel 70 AD was the future.
The only Holy Temple is the Jesus, and the dwelling of his spirit in us.

Yes I know the holy temple is us,

But thats not what we are talking about. We are discussing what God said

again, I am looking at prophecy and what God said will happen AFTER the temple and city is destroyed, which occured in 70 AD. wither the place is literally holy or not. does not concern me, Because it does not matter.

You do whatever you want

If God said a temple will be built. and an idol will be placed into the holy place of that temple. for all to see

I will trust him and take him at his word. Ok?

Yet, you are saying this didn't take place until 70ad... long after "the veil of the temple was torn in two from top to bottom" at the time of Jesus' death, Mark 15:38 (32ad; and in the same year, He ascended up to Heaven).

How do you explain this, in view of what you've put in this post?

I really don't know why God allowed the temple to stand for 40 more years. Maybe his patience and grace was still giving them time to repent; A full generation of eye witnesses. That generation would recognize that place in the temple as the "Holy Place". But finally in 70AD he took the entire temple from them forever to show that this was the end of the temple age.

That holy place was not literally holy for along time. Gods presence had long since departed that place long before jesus was even born, We know. Because when the high priest, Who was not walking in according with Faith in God. enterd, he did not die, and have to be pulled by a rope.

So your line of reasoning is flawed on all facets.

It is A HOLY place. according to jewish tradition.

So when jesus told JEWS that when THEY see the AOD Standing in the HOLY PLACE. He is talking about the Holy Place in THEIR TEMPLE> something THEY WILL understand when it happens.

The Temple in the NT is Christendom. And the Papacy already fulfilled and will continue to fulfill the Antichrist role. A third temple means a return to Judaism and a rejection of Christ's atonement in trade for animal sacrifices. It's not worth going to hell for this theory.

Two things to consider:

1) Jesus' words in


Matthew 23:38-39 [Jesus, addressing "Jerusalem"] - "Behold, your house is left unto you desolate. 39 For I say unto you, Ye shall not see me henceforth, till ye shall say, Blessed is he that cometh in the name of the Lord."


Luke 13:35 [Jesus, addressing "Jerusalem"] - "Behold, your house is left unto you desolate: and verily I say unto you, Ye shall not see me, until the time come when ye shall say, Blessed is he that cometh in the name of the Lord."




2) the SEQUENCE issues in His Olivet Discourse, where:

"SET B [circumstances]" are spelled out in Lk21:8-11 (same as in Matt24:4-8 / Mk13:5-8 -- called "the beginning of birth pangs");

"SET A [circumstances]" are spelled out in Lk21:12-24 (the 70ad events, including v.24's "UNTIL");

we know that is the SEQUENCE [SET A *before* SET B] because of verse 12's "BUT BEFORE all these [BEFORE all "the beginning of birth pangs" just described in vv.8-11]"... BEFORE all those... the "SET A [circumstances (i.e. the 70ad events)]" must take place [BEFORE those (BEFORE "the beginning of birth pangs")]!



"SET B [circumstances]" do not PRECEDE the "SET A [circumstances]"

That has no bearing on What Jesus, and the Angel Gabriel said will happen in the last days concerning a buiding which is in Jerusalem. and an AOD which is seen by ALL to be standing in a holy place.

How can this be, when each "Week" (of said prophecy) is a duration of "SEVEN YEARS"?

What was the "SEVEN YEARS" that began at His "resurrection" (I assume you meant His)?

When Jesus returns, which will be very soon I believe, dispensationalist will think he's the antichrist.

LOL.

So NO "dispensationalists" will be "CAUGHT UP/AWAY" ?

[or, do you mean, you do not believe there is any such thing as "caught up/away" at all ?? not even at the very END ?? (I thought that was your view, no ? )]



Sounds a bit "confused," I must say.

The bible's an esoteric book, it's supposed to be confusing on the surface. Honestly I have no idea how the end plays out. I don't know if being caught up in the air is literal or figurative. I mean I can say that I've been caught up spiritually with the Lord and I will always be with him.

I don't have all the answers but I do believe that if there is no physical "catching up" and the Lord just returns, then the dispensationalist wont believe that it's him because they believe the "anitchrist" comes first.

Who do you believe the following is in reference to?

"...whom the Lord Jesus will consume with the breath of His mouth and will annul by the appearing [G2015] of His coming [G3952]" 2Th2:8b


[someone who is in existence on the earth prior to His "RETURN [to the earth]," no? (Just like in Daniel 7:25,27,20-25 and just like in other passages also)]

It's the guy who sits in the temple of God. For most people that is themselves. There again when Christ came to me that man of sin was dethroned and Christ took his place. That Wicked was destroyed with the brightness of His coming into my life.

The bible is an esoteric book, the meaning is hidden from the world.... you're trying to gain wisdom of the end times by the wisdom of this world.

Why, then, does it say of [that one], "WHOSE COMING [/ARRIVAL / ADVENT]"... 2Th2:9a... you would think if it just meant every individual within themselves, that this "WHOSE COMING [/ARRIVAL / ADVENT]" would not be used, but something more like "whose existence" (as in, it's always been there, existing in such a way).

What would you say is the difference ?





P.S. I've already LISTED in past posts the passages IN SCRIPTURE I see as PARALLEL to this, and there are several...

examples:

[quoting old post]


[...] I have made the argument that the following passages are referring to the SAME thing [/SAME individual]:

1) --2Th2:9a [re: the man of sin] - "whose COMING [G3952 - parousia - "3952 (parousía / 'presence') is a "technical term with reference to the visit of a king or some other official, 'a royal visit' " (Souter)" (quoted from BibleHub); or, their ARRIVAL on the scene, so to speak];

2) --Rev6:2 - "he WENT FORTH [G1831 - ex erchomai--from ek/ex G1537 and erchomai G2064] conquering and to conquer";

3) --Dan9:26b - "prince THAT SHALL COME [H935 - 'who is to come']" (which I've pointed out in past posts how the word "THAT SHALL COME" would be superfluous if referring to the prince already mentioned in the previous verse, v.25--no need to say this... saying something like "he" or "the prince" would suffice, IF referring to the SAME person; Not to mention the SEQUENCE issues of this passage [vv.24-27], which verse 27a/b/c I've demonstrated is PARALLEL to the passage of 2Th2:3-9a, i.e. in its "BEGINNING," its "MIDDLE," *and* its "END"--BOTH passages covering ALL SEVEN YEARS! [as do a few other related passages/sections of scripture]);

4) --Daniel 7:27,25,20-24, esp. v.20 "and of the other [horn] which CAME UP [H5559 - [סְלֵק] verb come up (Aramaic loan-word in Biblical Hebrew, q. v.)]" (parallel to the TIMING also in Dan12:11 I referred to in another recent thread [which chpt has DAY-AMOUNTS which CONCLUDE/END with Daniel being resurrected to stand again on the earth (v.13), which did not happen in 70ad ; ) ]), and which verse 7:20 also supplies a DESCRIPTION: "whose look is more stout than his fellows";

5) --Matt24:4 / Mk13:5 "G5100 - tis - 'A CERTAIN ONE ['a certain one' bringing deception],'" because (take note) the following verses (Matt24:5/Mk13:6) is saying "FOR many shall come [G2064]... saying, 'I am ____'"... so this is saying "many SHALL COME [G2064]" but for them to "take heed lest 'A CERTAIN ONE [G5100 - tis]' deceive you"--that is, DISTINGUISHING "A CERTAIN ONE [IN PARTICULAR]" from "the many" that shall [also] come [G2064] "saying..."

Got do some outside work be back later.

Okay, enjoy your time out there!