Prophecy, it’s not what most think.

Once again, 70AD fulfillment yes/no?

1.) Do you believe Matthew 24:15 was fulfilled in 70AD Daniels Abomination?

2.) Do you believe Matthew 24:21 was fulfilled in 70AD?

Say what?

I graduated from the School of Hard Knocks.

Nice. My accomplishments include the honored title of Dunce-Cap to the nth Degree.

You are the one claiming exclusive rights to understanding the scripture because you claim to read Hebrew.

I was sorta thinking you fit the description above, and I'm new to the forum.

When the words it is fished were given

2:10 Which in time past [were] not a people, but [are] now the people of God: which had not obtained mercy, but now have obtained mercy.

… beat that!

FYI living the " Sermon on the Mount." is not a career. FYI Jesus went to school up until the age of possibly 24, as most Jewish males did during that day. WE are to live the Sermon on the Mount each day and guess what, You can have a career by which you live it at also.

You are needing to be more humble. And work on a teachable spirit. You know nothing of the sideline. You attack what you could not do. I think you just gave up on it. FYI many have done so and went back and finished it.

Here is something for you, Learning is a life long process. Diplomas, degrees, certification, and learning. It will happen until you take your last breath. Sermon on the Mount> and what Jesus said is not a check this box and be done it is not a career it is a spiritual walk and lifestyle that you do at home, at work, at school, in your relationship with people.

You have an unfulfilled spirit because you are driven by Legalism not love. it makes you prideful and angry. You need to rethink your biblical understanding.

Revelation 20

20:4 And I saw thrones, and they sat upon them, and judgment was given unto them: and [I saw] the souls of them that were beheaded for the witness of Jesus, and for the word of God, and which had not worshipped the beast, neither his image, neither had received [his] mark upon their foreheads, or in their hands; and they lived and reigned with Christ a thousand years.
20:5 But the rest of the dead lived not again until the thousand years were finished. This [is] the first resurrection.
20:6 Blessed and holy [is] he that hath part in the first resurrection: on such the second death hath no power, but they shall be priests of God and of Christ, and shall reign with him a thousand years.

Who was right? Jesus teaching a present spiritual kingdom? Or the Pharisees who were blind and still look for a future physical kingdom?

I will not associate myself with your labeling. I have no use for your theological term. The word of God is clear .

Fulfilment of what. the reformation began when the veil was rent. When the words it is fished were given to the Son form the father.

Not sure where this 70 AD tradition of men came about? There was no sign that spoke of that . I think someone is looking But the abomination of desolation differently than how the Bible defines the usage of the phrase. When Jesu stepped out of the abomination of desolation "temple built with human hands" its purpose to destroy the was destroyed. The graves were opened .And the temple using living mankind was restored as it was before there were Kings in Israel "abomination of desolation"

It's a fact that those who believe any part of Matthew 24 in The Olivet Discourse being fulfilled in the 1st century as being "Preterist" In their eschatology.
All Matt 24, full preterist
Part Matt 24, partial preterist
You might not like a label, but your belief carrys one.

It sounds as though you are calling the disciples "Pharisees," because, as you recall, they were still asking Jesus about the TIMING of the kingdom, in Acts 1... after having already had some "40 days" of His teaching (after His resurrection) on that very Subject... and He does not correct their thinking... He just addresses their question, which had to do with its TIMING, not its NATURE.

Recall, the article I'd posted on that:

[quoting excerpt]

33. It ignores the life-setting of the disciples’ question in Acts 1:6 in the context of their already having had forty days teaching about the very thing they asked about (“the kingdom” – see Acts 1:3). This reflects badly on the clarity of the Risen Lord’s teaching about the kingdom. But the tenacity with which these disciples still clung to literal fulfillments would also prove the validity of #’s 23, 26, 27, 28 & 32 above.

34. This resistance to the clear expectation of the disciples also ignores the question of the disciples, which was about the timing of the restoration of the kingdom to Israel, not its nature.

https://sharperiron.org/article/forty-reasons-for-not-reinterpreting-ot-nt-last-twenty

"Forty Reasons for Not Re-Interpreting the OT by the NT: the Last Twenty" by Paul Martin Henebury




____________

See again this vid by him:

What about the "Historicist" viewpoint... some of whom believe Matt24's "GREAT tribulation" STARTED in the first century and ENDS at His Second Coming to the earth (lasting that ENTIRE spans of time).

[note to the readers: I disagree with the Historicist viewpoint, for reasons I've listed in past posts]

Fulfilment of what. the reformation began when the veil was rent.

Not sure where this 70 AD tradition of men came about? There was no sign that spoke of that .

I think someone is looking But the abomination of desolation differently than how the Bible defines the usage of the phrase.

When Jesu stepped out of the abomination of desolation "temple built with human hands"

its purpose to destroy the was destroyed.

So you're going to disregard the entire video simply due to the title of it, and your pre-conceived notions on that?

ALL 73 occurrences of the word "Israel" in the NT, ALL *MEAN* "Israel":

http://www.middletownbiblechurch.org/reformed/israelaf.htm

- "How is the Term Israel Used in the New Testament?"




[be sure to check out the entries especially under Rom9:6, Rom11:26, Eph2:12, and Gal6:16--the verses most often used by Covenant theologians to support their (faulty) viewpoint]


____________

= ) I was actually coming back on here to post the following:

[quoting]

#18

Consider also another post I had made some time back:

[quoting an excerpt from old post]

... how many times does the word "years" (used with any given number, in connection with it, in Scripture) not mean "[that many] years"? ["______ years" (insert any number as found in scripture, here)]

[end quoting]


The biblical answer is... exactly ZERO.

There are NO instances in the Bible where the word "years" used with a number, that it DOESN'T MEAN *THAT many* number of "years".

Zero times.

The oft-repeated argument (taken from the 'amill-talking-points' book) is a lame one.