Questions about JW’s

How long ago did God create the universe along with the Earth and Adam then, how many years has it approximately been?

How long ago did God create the universe along with the Earth and Adam then, how many years has it approximately been?

Then this leads you to another error in the translation since not all of NWT has all the upper letter GOD or GODS that you are saying. Your assumption that older COPIES written in UPPER case letters, majuscules or uncial got it right and they are representative of the original copies. You seem not to understand that even though those 6th Ce manuscript display the true font rendering since these copies are independent to each other and were copies and copies of the originals so called which had over time had witnesses are more than what you imagine.

Papyrus 98 (in the Gregory-Aland numbering), is an early copy of the New Testament in Greek. It is a papyrus manuscript of the Book of Revelation. The manuscript palaeographically had been assigned to years "100–200 according to WIKI and other sources.

Now if you are looking for a reality, if you are looking for ancestral ‘older does better’ then you need to take note that P98 written “100-200” is also written in lower case Greek alphabet. And so your justification is still not a precise one, hence, you are in much trouble with your understanding in 1 Cor. and BTW, which majuscule or uncial you are in reference to?

περ]ι̣εζωσμμ̣εν̣[ον προς τοις μαστοις ζωνην
χρυ]σεν [1:14] και η κ̣ε[φαλη αυτου και αι τριχες λευκαι
ως] εριον λευκον [ως χιων και οι οφθαλμοι αυτου ως
φλ]οξ πυρος [1:15] και [οι ποδες αυτου ομοιοι χαλκολιβανω
ως] εν καμινω πε[πυρωμενης και η φωνη αυτου ως
φωνη υδατων π̣[ολλων [1:16] και εχων εν τη δεξια χειρι
αυτου αστερες [ζ̅ και εκ του στοματος αυτου ρομ
φαια διστομος ο[ξεια εκπορευομενη και η οψις αυ
το̣υ ως ο η̣λ̣ιος φ[αινει εν τη δυναμει αυτου [1:17] και οτε ει
δ̣ο̣ν̣ αυτον ε[π]εσα [προς τους ποδας αυτου ως νεκρος
και εθηκε̣ τ̣η̣ν̣ [δεξιαν αυτου επ εμε λεγων
μη φοβ̣[ο]υ̣ ε̣γ̣ω̣ [ειμι ο πρωτος και ο εσχατος [1:18] και εγε
νομεν̣ ν̣εκ̣ρ̣ο̣[ς και ιδου ζων ειμι εις τους αιωνας
τ̣ω̣ν̣ α̣ι̣ω̣ν̣ω̣ν̣ [και εχω τας κλεις του θανατου και
του α̣δ̣ο̣υ̣ [1:19] γ̣ρ̣α̣ψ̣ο̣ν̣ [ουν α ειδες και α εισιν και α μελλει
γε̣ν̣ε̣[σ]θ̣α̣ι̣ [μετα ταυτα [1:20] το μυστηριον των ζ̅
α̣στερ̣ω̣ν̣ [ους ειδες επι της δεξιας μου και τας
ζ̅ λυχνει[α]ς [τας χρυσας οι ζ̅ αστερες αγγελοι των
ζ̅ εκκλησ̣ι̣ω̣ν̣ ε̣ι[σιν και αι λυχνιαι αι ζ̅ ζ̅ εκκλεσιαι
εισ]ι̣[ν [2:1] τω αγγελω της εν εφεσω εκκλησιας γραψον ταδε λεγ
ε̣ι̣ [ο κρατων τους ζ̅ αστερας εν τη δεξια αυτου ο

https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Papyrus_98

https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Greek_alphabet

They all believe in Jesus is the way. Yet they all have different views on what "The way" means.

How do you know the ones after the 6th CE where are the true rendering when it was 500 years after the originals were written? This is pure conjecture.

The NWT translation is no more in error than any other bible is, it is the translator's responsibility to use both grammar and context to determine what is trying to be expressed in any given text. As I've mentioned already, the fact that all translations use capital G and lower case g's in relation to uses of theos and elohim (or other variations) does not mean they are in error if they believe that the terms mean something different when applied to a specific person, and by doing so is making a distinction by using the modern language and grammar, this is the whole purpose of translation.

Your example is pointless, an exception does not create the rule. The fact remains, NT manuscripts do not make a distinction of the text in question, some later ones may, but even so it would not make a difference

Please express how I'm in trouble with 1 Cor 8:4-6? I believe their is 'one God to the Father' in a unique sense despite their being 'many gods' and the scripture expresses exactly so, though there be 'many gods, to us, there is one God the Father'.

My friend, you need to get a grip of yourself, it is not reasonable for me to defend anything and everything throws at me, or else someone could cite 300 verses at me at once and demand I explain all of them, Magenta posted over 10 verses to me at once, along with another post, no doubt directed at me, with another 50+ verses, the fact that I don't have the time to explain them all and make the reasonable request for her to post the ones she believes are the strongest ones should hardly excite you as much as it is. At present, you seem unhealthily obsessed with JW's.

I don't know, I'm not going to guess and I don't really care how many years it may be. This is a "distraction" which you and your organization love to do, distract when confronted with questions you can't answer/change the subject.

My original question was why Jesus is credited with creation and without Him nothing came into being. (John 1:3). I even backed up the verse with other verses including Hebrews 1:0 where His own Father says He created the earth and the heavens with His own hands.

And no, God does not have hands. It's a "metaphor" showing He did it by Himself and all alone just like at Isaiah 44:24. And please, don't tell me that the verse is referring to God the Father. It explicitly says, "Thus says the Lord, your Redeemer." You can't "assume" this is referring to God the Father especially when John 1:1 says, "The Word was with God, and the Word was God."

So again, getting back to my question which you said, "It's a good question.?" Why is Jesus Christ identified as the creator? Maybe I can't put it another way. You have the Word/Jesus Christ at John 1:1 identified as "a god." Since you JW's teach that Jesus was the first one created how can He also be the creator Himself? Stick to the subject NWL.

It was only 44 verses. Please try to be more honest.

The weight of Scripture is against you.

Also, my apologies, as one verse of the 44 was repeated.

Giving one verse alone or even two or three to show that God proclaims Himself alone as the Rock of salvation is not sufficient to prove that you are wrong when the FACT remains that Scripture also proclaims Jesus as the Rock of our salvation and the only means by which we may be saved... not once or twice, but multiple times. The weight of Scripture is against you and you complain about it.

Is Satan called "the god of this world" according to 2 Cor 4:4?

Was Moses "God to Pharaoh" according to Exo 7:1?

Are angels called Elohim/gods according to Psalms 8:5 compared to Hebrews 2:7?

Did Jesus tell some Jews "you are gods" in John 10:34?

Did Paul state there are "many gods" in 1 Cor 8:5?

How do you know the ones after the 6th CE where are the true rendering when it was 500 years after the originals were written? This is pure conjecture.

The NWT translation is no more in error than any other bible is, it is the translator's responsibility to use both grammar and context to determine what is trying to be expressed in any given text. As I've mentioned already, the fact that all translations use capital G and lower case g's in relation to uses of theos and elohim (or other variations) does not mean they are in error if they believe that the terms mean something different when applied to a specific person, and by doing so is making a distinction by using the modern language and grammar, this is the whole purpose of translation.

Your example is pointless, an exception does not create the rule. The fact remains, NT manuscripts do not make a distinction of the text in question, some later ones may, but even so it would not make a difference

Please express how I'm in trouble with 1 Cor 8:4-6? I believe their is 'one God to the Father' in a unique sense despite their being 'many gods' and the scripture expresses exactly so, though there be 'many gods, to us, there is one God the Father'.

Why can't you answer my questions where I'm only asking you to confirm what the scriptures themselves state, is the weight of the scripture to heavy against you the same way it apparently is against me?

Here are the questions again:

Is Satan "the god of this world" according to 2 Cor 4:4?
Was Moses "God to Pharaoh" according to Exo 7:1?
Are angels called Elohim/gods according to Psalms 8:5 compared to Hebrews 2:7?
Did Jesus tell some Jews "you are gods" in John 10:34?
Did Paul state there are "many gods" in 1 Cor 8:5?

"among whom [satan] the god of this system of things has blinded the minds of the unbelievers.." (2 Corinthians 4:4)
"And the Lord [YHWH] said to Moses: Behold I have appointed thee the God of Pharaoh: and Aaron thy brother shall be thy prophet.."
"You have made them a little lower than the angels [Elohim/gods] and crowned them with glory and honor.." (Psalms 8:5 NIV. Compare Hebrews 2:7)
"God takes his place in the divine assembly; In the middle of the gods he judges.." (Psalm 82:1)
"Jesus answered them: “Is it not written in your Law, ‘I said: “You are gods”..’ (John 10:34)

.
● John 1:1 . . In the beginning the Word was

The "word" is translated from the Greek word logos (log'-os) which basically
refers to something spoken, i.e. speech; for example:

● Gen 1:1-3 . . In the beginning God created the heavens and the earth. And
God proceeded to say: “Let light come to be.” Then there came to be light.

So the cosmos-- all of its forms of life, matter, and energy --came into
existence by means of God's voice, viz: by means of His speech rather than
His thoughts and/or His will.

● 2Pet 3:5 . . There were heavens from of old by the word of God

Had God curbed His tongue, there'd be no stars out in space, nor clouds in
the sky for us to look at.

Exactly how God's speech has enough power, force, and energy to bring
things into existence is just as mystifying to me how His speech is a sentient
being. The difference is quite large, viz: it's one thing to speak a sentient
being into existence while quite another for the voice itself to be a sentient
being; but there it is. Don't ask me how God's spoken words are sentient
because it is just too far beyond the capability of my below-average IQ to
figure out.

The Jehovah's Witnesses say that God's speech is a god. Well; that true, but
it's not the whole truth. In order to be spot on, we have to spell god with an
upper case G so that there's absolutely no mistaking whose speech we're
talking about. If someone wants to say that God's speech is a divine being;
okay, but we cannot allow God's own speech to have less personal value
as a divine being than Himself.
_

I was dishonest in nothing I said, it was far more than 44 verse. If I cite Genesis 1:1-10 it doesn't count as one verse but 10, counting the ones you posted, including ones you may have repeated, you cited 54 verses over two posts, this doesn't include the multiple verses you quoted in a single citation (such as 1 Peter 2:4-8 along with many more) which would bring the total to well over 60. It would be trival of me to call you out and claim you were dishonest over this simple mistake, it just shows your colours when you do it with me since its such a trvial thing to miscount, as you have done.

I cant see you agreeing to exegete 60+ verses I can produce, are you or are you not willing to do it?

Yes, I failed to count the very few citations with more than one verse, and I apologize for asking you to be more honest. I was not expecting you to exegete them at all, though, and I said more than once why I gave so many at once, because taking ONE example such as God being the only Rock and showing how Jesus is the only Rock leads one to the inescapable conclusion that Jesus is God if one properly harmonizes Scripture, line by line and precept by precept, and as I showed, there are plenty of Scriptures to attest to Jesus being God using just that one example. You may refuse to do that, but here may be others who are not so adverse to learning, and perhaps someone will be helped in their understanding, even if you are not due to your preconceived ideas. Nor am I obsessed with JWs. Hey, YOU are the one who came here to push your false notions based on your corrupt translation. You have been flying under the radar for a long time. Meanwhile, denying the deity of Christ used to be the number one heresy that would get people banned here. Good luck.

Magenta, you say all of this but then you still overlook answering NWL rather simple questions? Does it trouble you that you cant do this? This is, unfortunately, the typical behavior of many Christians and Trinitarians. They purposely overlook questions and turn a blind to scriptures like the ones quoted as it does not fit in with their theology. Its a classical example fitting the scriptures around your theology apposed to letting your theology fit around scripture.

I'm sure you'd relish the idea of NWL getting banned, that way you wouldn't need to hear things that make you uncomfortable. However, I don't believe NWL, if he is a JW, as he hasn't stated he is directly yet (from what I've read), has denied that Jesus is deity. JW don't deny Jesus is deity (Colossians 2:9), so, unfortunately, I don't think it would be grounds for banning,

What question? Would I exegete 60 verses? I did not give the verses for him to exegete, and I explained that in the very post you just quoted.

Oh, yes, you believe Jesus is A god, but not God. NWT Bible changes a lot of things. Worship is reserved for God alone. (Ex. 20:5, Acts 14:15, 20:26, Rev. 19:10). In many places Jesus is worshiped by both angels and mankind, but all references to the worship of Jesus have been systematically deleted or obscured in the NWT.

The NWT uses “I have been” to obscure the the Greek “ego eimi” - I AM when Jesus says I AM in John 8:58.

In John 14:11, the NWT has “I am in union with the Father and the Father is in union with me,” inserting the word “union” which is not in any Greek manuscripts, instead of “I am in the Father and the Father is in me."

In Colossians 1:16, the NWT inserts the word "other." Is your Jesus a created being?
You both seem to be averse to the sharing of information.

How can you be sure I would relish such a thing? Perhaps your imagination is over active.
You both seem to be adverse to the sharing of information.