LET THE WOMAN LEARN IN SILENCE - WHAT DO YOU THINK THIS MEANS?

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Nehemiah6

Senior Member
Jul 18, 2017
24,346
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#22
Let the woman learn in silence with all subjection.
It means exactly what it says.

New International Version
A woman should learn in quietness and full submission.
New Living Translation
Women should learn quietly and submissively.
English Standard Version
Let a woman learn quietly with all submissiveness.
Berean Study Bible
A woman must learn in quietness and full submissiveness.
Berean Literal Bible
Let a woman learn in quietness, in all submissiveness.
New American Standard Bible
A woman must quietly receive instruction with entire submissiveness.
New King James Version
Let a woman learn in silence with all submission.
King James Bible
Let the woman learn in silence with all subjection.
Christian Standard Bible
A woman is to learn quietly with full submission.
Contemporary English Version
and they should learn by being quiet and paying attention.
Good News Translation
Women should learn in silence and all humility.
Holman Christian Standard Bible
A woman should learn in silence with full submission.
International Standard Version
Let a woman learn with a quiet spirit, and submissively.
NET Bible
A woman must learn quietly with all submissiveness.
New Heart English Bible
Let a woman learn in quietness with all subjection.
Aramaic Bible in Plain English
Let women learn in silence with all submission,
GOD'S WORD® Translation
A woman must learn in silence, in keeping with her position.
New American Standard 1977
Let a woman quietly receive instruction with entire submissiveness.
King James 2000 Bible
Let the woman learn in silence with all subjection.
American King James Version
Let the woman learn in silence with all subjection.
American Standard Version
Let a woman learn in quietness with all subjection.
Douay-Rheims Bible
Let the woman learn in silence, with all subjection.
Darby Bible Translation
Let a woman learn in quietness in all subjection;
English Revised Version
Let a woman learn in quietness with all subjection.
Webster's Bible Translation
Let the woman learn in silence with all subjection.
Weymouth New Testament
A woman should quietly learn from others with entire submissiveness.
World English Bible
Let a woman learn in quietness with all subjection.
Young's Literal Translation
Let a woman in quietness learn in all subjection,
 

tourist

Senior Member
Mar 13, 2014
41,304
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Tennessee
#24
Where is this in Scripture?
Acts 18:25-26
He had been instructed in the way of the LORD, and he spoke with great fervor and taught about Jesus accurately, though he knew only the baptism of John. He began to speak boldly in the synagogue. When Priscilla and Aquila heard him, they invited him to their home and explained to him the way of God more adequately.

It is interesting to note that her name is mentioned first and then her husband's. It is obvious that Pricilla did in fact teach a man the way of God. The man she taught, Apollos was a learned man about Jesus in his own right yet God permitted Priscilla to give instruct him the way of God more adequately.
 

John146

Senior Member
Jan 13, 2016
16,614
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#25
Acts 18:25-26
He had been instructed in the way of the LORD, and he spoke with great fervor and taught about Jesus accurately, though he knew only the baptism of John. He began to speak boldly in the synagogue. When Priscilla and Aquila heard him, they invited him to their home and explained to him the way of God more adequately.

It is interesting to note that her name is mentioned first and then her husband's. It is obvious that Pricilla did in fact teach a man the way of God. The man she taught, Apollos was a learned man about Jesus in his own right yet God permitted Priscilla to give instruct him the way of God more adequately.
It is obvious that she was with her husband and both of them helped Apollos see the truth. This Scripture is in no way an indication that a woman is to teach and have authority over a man in the local church. It is absurd to take this instance and make it a rule over the local church and disqualify Paul's teaching in 1 Timothy 2.
 
S

Scribe

Guest
#26
It is clear in verse 12, that women were not to be allowed to preach publicly, in churches..
But it does not say "women were not to be allowed to preach publicly in the churches" in verse 12 so how could it be clear? You would have to be told by someone that is what Paul intended to say. But did he?

To interpret 2 Tim 2 it is very helpful to read 1 Pet 3. Very Helpful is an understatement.

1 Peter 3:1-6 Likewise, ye wives, be in subjection to your own husbands; that, if any obey not the word, they also may without the word be won by the conversation of the wives; 2 While they behold your chaste conversation coupled with fear. 3Whose adorning let it not be that outward adorning of plaiting the hair, and of wearing of gold, or of putting on of apparel; 4 But let it be the hidden man of the heart, in that which is not corruptible, even the ornament of a meek and quiet spirit, which is in the sight of God of great price. 5 For after this manner in the old time the holy women also, who trusted in God, adorned themselves, being in subjection unto their own husbands: 6 Even as Sara obeyed Abraham, calling him lord: whose daughters ye are, as long as ye do well, and are not afraid with any amazement.

Now compare with 2 Tim 2 and notice the strikingly similar wording. As if Peter was quoting Paul.

1 Tim 2:9-12 9 In like manner also, that women adorn themselves in modest apparel, with shamefacedness and sobriety; not with broided hair, or gold, or pearls, or costly array; 10 But (which becometh women professing godliness) with good works. 11 Let the woman learn in silence with all subjection. 12 But I suffer not a woman to teach, nor to usurp authority over the man, but to be in silence.

I believe that using the rule of theological context in interpretation we have a strong case to say that Paul was talking about the same thing that Peter was talking about especially when Paul does mention the Adam and Eve scenarios confirming that this is about a wife toward her husband. It has nothing to do with banning women from preaching. AND IT IS NOT CLEAR AT ALL THAT IS WHAT PAUL MEANT. That is eisegesis, (reading into the text what is not there) rather than exegesis (understanding the authors intended meaning)

It is IMPOSSIBLE that Paul's authorial intent was to ban women from PULPIT ministry Because the PULPIT had not been invented yet and this would not have entered his mind. It would have been IMPOSSIBLE for his readers to have had that concept either. eisegesis has caused people to put words in Paul's mouth (like publically in the church, pulpit, preach the Bible) and ideas in his head that he did not write and could not have known to write (pulpit, Sunday School, etc) We have no authority to apply modern church assembly concepts to what was happening at the church of Ephesus at the time of Paul.

Peter was more verbose but it is obvious they were talking about the same things. The wife toward the husband, the attitude of the woman toward the man (Paul's use of Adam and Even confirm that he was talking about that relationship not pulpit preaching) It is not godly for the woman to Correct/Teach, or rule over the man and especially in public is it shameful to see that happen. It is embarrassing to the man for the woman to Teach/correct/scold him. She should be respectful, give him honor, hold her peace, if she is really concerned about something, ask him at home not in public, causing contention, and making a scene as it were. Especially in the church if there are other believers around who might side with her opinion over the husbands and cause divisions. 1 Cor 14 is another example telling them to be silent and ask their husbands their questions at home because they were being out of order asking in a disruptive way. He also told those who spoke in tongues (male and female) to be silent if there were no interpreter, and he told those who prophesied (male or female) to be silent in the church if someone else had a word to share and take turns. The phrase be silent has been taken beyond what Paul intended and strange doctrines banning women from preaching the word of God We know it is Gods plan to empower women to prophesy (that is using their words) They are called to proclaim the Word of God in the church, out of the church, on top of the church, under the church, and everywhere else.
And it shall come to pass afterward, that I will pour out my spirit upon all flesh; and your sons and your daughters shall prophesy, your old men shall dream dreams, your young men shall see visions:
29 And also upon the servants and upon the handmaids in those days will I pour out my spirit.
 
S

Scribe

Guest
#27
It is obvious that she was with her husband and both of them helped Apollos see the truth. This Scripture is in no way an indication that a woman is to teach and have authority over a man in the local church. It is absurd to take this instance and make it a rule over the local church and disqualify Paul's teaching in 1 Timothy 2.
Most scholars would disagree with you stating that it does point to Pricila has having the chief role in the teaching. She is also mentioned first in reference to the church in their house. She is considered by the majority of scholars as being singled out by Luke as the gifted one and the one taking the ministry leadership role.
 
T

TheIndianGirl

Guest
#28
It is obvious that she was with her husband and both of them helped Apollos see the truth.
At a minimum, this shows that a married woman can teach another man in the presence of her husband. Do you agree?
 

John146

Senior Member
Jan 13, 2016
16,614
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#29
Most scholars would disagree with you stating that it does point to Pricila has having the chief role in the teaching. She is also mentioned first in reference to the church in their house. She is considered by the majority of scholars as being singled out by Luke as the gifted one and the one taking the ministry leadership role.
Most scholars?:LOL::LOL::LOL:

This one passage does not nullify the inspired words of Paul in 1 Timothy 2.
 

John146

Senior Member
Jan 13, 2016
16,614
3,529
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#30
At a minimum, this shows that a married woman can teach another man in the presence of her husband. Do you agree?
Assist their husbands in private teaching of another, yes. I see this example as having two witnesses. The question at hand in 1 Timothy 2 is a woman's role in the local church.
 
S

Scribe

Guest
#31
Most scholars?:LOL::LOL::LOL:

This one passage does not nullify the inspired words of Paul in 1 Timothy 2.
Read my post. #26 You have misinterpreted 1 Tim 2 and like many people you have been taught to add words to the text that are not there.
 

PennEd

Senior Member
Apr 22, 2013
12,920
8,652
113
#32
As long as we can ALL agree that boys rule and girls drool we can move on!
 

John146

Senior Member
Jan 13, 2016
16,614
3,529
113
#33
Read my post. #26 You have misinterpreted 1 Tim 2 and like many people you have been taught to add words to the text that are not there.
I still disagree with your opinion. The Lord is setting guidelines for the local church and the roles of men and women. For instance, a bishop should be the husband of one wife.

Added words? Nope, I take each word written literally.
 
T

TheIndianGirl

Guest
#34
There are a lot of threads on women pastors, which I do not think was the OP's intent. Her question was "Should women learn in silence" which is more focused on whether women should be silent in church which actually affects all women, meaning no talking at all (aside from non-Scriptural topics such as bake sales, etc.), and whether she can ask questions in church regarding Scripture, ask the pastor etc. Sticking to this topic, I have already posted my views at the beginning.
 

tourist

Senior Member
Mar 13, 2014
41,304
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#35
It is obvious that she was with her husband and both of them helped Apollos see the truth. This Scripture is in no way an indication that a woman is to teach and have authority over a man in the local church. It is absurd to take this instance and make it a rule over the local church and disqualify Paul's teaching in 1 Timothy 2.
If women are not allowed to teach men then why was she teaching (with her husband) in the first place?

Perhaps God believed that she had some significant spiritual insight to offer.

Either woman cannot teach a man or she can. One exception to any steadfast rule or principal opens the door for others to emulate.

Regarding the church reference, Jesus stated that where 2 or 3 are gathered in His name He is in the midst of them. Aquila, Priscilla, and Apollos are 3, they were certainly gathered in the name of Jesus, so therefore that would constitute a church. This scripture does in fact indicate that a woman can indeed be allowed to teach and have authority over a man if the woman is lead by the Holy Spirit to do so.

As I mentioned earlier, Deborah was a judge over the entire nation of Israel. In the course of her duties she most certainly had authority over men. God appointed her to be a judge. God appoints all of those in positions of authority.

Again, what Paul did not permit is not necessarily what God does not permit.
 
S

Scribe

Guest
#36
I still disagree with your opinion. The Lord is setting guidelines for the local church and the roles of men and women. For instance, a bishop should be the husband of one wife.

Added words? Nope, I take each word written literally.
But the it does not say anything about preaching the bible in church. So yes, you do have to add it to interpret it that way.
 

tourist

Senior Member
Mar 13, 2014
41,304
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#37
Most scholars would disagree with you stating that it does point to Pricila has having the chief role in the teaching. She is also mentioned first in reference to the church in their house. She is considered by the majority of scholars as being singled out by Luke as the gifted one and the one taking the ministry leadership role.
I fully concur with your estimate. Being mentioned first before her husband has great spiritual significance.
 

John146

Senior Member
Jan 13, 2016
16,614
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#38
If women are not allowed to teach men then why was she teaching (with her husband) in the first place?

Perhaps God believed that she had some significant spiritual insight to offer.

Either woman cannot teach a man or she can. One exception to any steadfast rule or principal opens the door for others to emulate.

Regarding the church reference, Jesus stated that where 2 or 3 are gathered in His name He is in the midst of them. Aquila, Priscilla, and Apollos are 3, they were certainly gathered in the name of Jesus, so therefore that would constitute a church. This scripture does in fact indicate that a woman can indeed be allowed to teach and have authority over a man if the woman is lead by the Holy Spirit to do so.

As I mentioned earlier, Deborah was a judge over the entire nation of Israel. In the course of her duties she most certainly had authority over men. God appointed her to be a judge. God appoints all of those in positions of authority.

Again, what Paul did not permit is not necessarily what God does not permit.
No doubt women play important roles in the local church, but teaching and authority is not one of them. Pastors are to be the husband of one wife. I guess we throw out that Scripture as well, or redefine it.
 

John146

Senior Member
Jan 13, 2016
16,614
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#39
But the it does not say anything about preaching the bible in church. So yes, you do have to add it to interpret it that way.
Continue the thought into chapter 3. Chapter 2 is not to stand alone.
 

tourist

Senior Member
Mar 13, 2014
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#40
No doubt women play important roles in the local church, but teaching and authority is not one of them. Pastors are to be the husband of one wife. I guess we throw out that Scripture as well, or redefine it.
No, you do not throw that scripture out at all. It could be that the term "pastor' is a masculine term pertaining to men only. Maybe a 'Leader' should only be the wife of one husband. There is still that Deborah thing though being a judge being appointed by God to be the judge over the entire nation of Israel. She would be what is known as a leader.