KJV translators weren't KJV only!

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justbyfaith

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The simple solution to this apparent contradiction is that Ahaziah was physically 22 years old when he began to reign, but since God has appointed Jehu to cut off the house of Ahab, as a son of Ahab through marriage, he was 42 years old. The information is all there in the texts to the student of the word.
I'm not sure I get that. Was Ahaziah both 22 and 42 at the same time?
 

justbyfaith

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It is my contention that the kjv is inspired and inerrant as concerning doctrine;

While in certain cases, as with certain numbers, or other minor details, that have been postulated within the text, there may indeed be error;

However there is no error in the kjv that would carry over into changing doctrine so that we would be finding unsound doctrine in the context of the kjv.

Therefore the unadulterated message of salvation is completely preserved in what we know as the authorized version.
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ResidentAlien

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This is obvious, they used other English Translations. They could not be KJV only, they were KJV Finally.
Which version of the KJV is the final and perfect one?

Based on what the KJV translators say in their Preface, it doesn't make any sense that they were KJV finally. For example they stated the necessity of translations (plural) into a language the common people could understand. The KJV may have served its purpose, but it's out of date.

I've actually heard people say that the form of English used in the KJV is the most perfect and pure form of English that ever was and will ever be; and for this reason the KJV is the most perfect translation that is and shall ever be. To that the KJV translators would roll over in their graves. Maybe the KJV language is a perfect and pure form of the English language, I don't know. But regardless, as far as the Bible is concerned, if people can't understand it it's useless.

The NKJV is an improvement, but is it the final one? Or the 1611, the 1629, the 1638, the 1762, or the 1769?

"But how shall men meditate in that, which they cannot understand? How shall they understand that which is kept close in an unknown tongue? as it is written, Except I know the power of the voice, I shall be to him that speaketh, a Barbarian, and he that speaketh, shall be a Barbarian to me. [1 Cor 14] The Apostle excepteth no tongue; not Hebrew the ancientest, not Greek the most copious, not Latin the finest. Nature taught a natural man to confess, that all of us in those tongues which we do not understand, are plainly deaf; we may turn the deaf ear unto them. The Scythian counted the Athenian, whom he did not understand, barbarous; so the Roman did the Syrian, and the Jew (even S. Jerome himself calleth the Hebrew tongue barbarous, belike because it was strange to so many) so the Emperor of Constantinople calleth the Latin tongue, barbarous, though Pope Nicolas do storm at it: so the Jews long before Christ called all other nations, Lognazim, which is little better than barbarous. Therefore as one complaineth, that always in the Senate of Rome, there was one or other that called for an interpreter: so lest the Church be driven to the like exigent, it is necessary to have translations in a readiness. Translation it is that openeth the window, to let in the light; that breaketh the shell, that we may eat the kernel; that putteth aside the curtain, that we may look into the most Holy place; that removeth the cover of the well, that we may come by the water, even as Jacob rolled away the stone from the mouth of the well, by which means the flocks of Laban were watered [Gen 29:10]. Indeed without translation into the vulgar tongue, the unlearned are but like children at Jacob's well (which was deep) [John 4:11] without a bucket or something to draw with; or as that person mentioned by Isaiah, to whom when a sealed book was delivered, with this motion, Read this, I pray thee, he was fain to make this answer, I cannot, for it is sealed. [Isa 29:11]"​
 

Lucy-Pevensie

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The person who spoke of this was not my teacher. I was actually contending with him for the doctrine of POTS.

But it should be clear that if Peter stood condemned, either he was never saved in the first place (Peter, the apostle?) or else he lost his salvation for a moment; and a person can go in and out of salvation.

I don't now what POTS is.

You seem to be under the impression that the chapter in question is condeming Peter to hell.
It has nothing to do with that and I don't get that impression from any translation.
 
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Ok, in Luke 10:1, did the Lord send out seventy or seventy two?Two to one spot but a total of 70

What does Matthew 18:11 really say if anything? Be a kid for the lest is the greatest

In 2 Samuel 21:19, who killed Goliath?
God did

Screenshot 2021-10-02 7.47.22 AM.png
 

justbyfaith

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I think that I have been ministered to by the exhortation in Corinthians to "quit you like men";

While a more modern translation would render it as "Be brave."

In context, there is a special connection to the first understanding (found in the kjv); in that it is said to us that the household of Stephanas addicted themselves to the ministry of the saints.

It applies, very aptly, in a teaching that when you quit doing some behaviour that you have an addiction to, that it is wise to replace that behaviour with something holy.

But the modern translations do not give that teaching; in them "quit you like men" is rendered "Be brave."

And, even if "Be brave" is more in line with today's English, I find that I prefer the kjv's rendering here because its application is more beneficial.
 

Blik

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everything is perfect in its imperfections.With that being said,,,,It is written we are made perfect in weakness.
What does that have to do with the necessity of checking out the translation of the KJV?
 

justbyfaith

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I don't now what POTS is.

You seem to be under the impression that the chapter in question is condeming Peter to hell.
It has nothing to do with that and I don't get that impression from any translation.
Perseverance of the Saints (the "P" of TULIP in Calvinism).

Of course, even if Peter did stand condemned, he was able to come back to the Lord and as soon as he would, he would be in right standing with God again and therefore if he died he would go to heaven.

But if he went on into the next life while he still "stood condemned" he would in fact be condemned to hell.

That's what "condemned" means.
 

ResidentAlien

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How about Galatians 2:11? the kjv translates it that Peter was to be blamed...whereas another translation says that he stood condemned.

That kind of has a bearing on the issue of OSAS vs. you can lose your salvation as a doctrine.
I see your point. "Condemned" is a proper translation of the Greek; so is "blamed." I really don't know how anyone reading that passage would come to the conclusion that Peter had lost his salvation. The different translations appear to create a problem, but it's not a serious issue.
 

ResidentAlien

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Do you include the New World Translation in that? It was done by a team; however I would not consider it to be a valid translation.
No, I wouldn't either. That's a good point. The New World Translation would fall into the category of "so-called translations."
 
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What does that have to do with the necessity of checking out the translation of the KJV?
To understand that god wants translation not to be perfect and that is part of gods perfect plan.You see that as having nothing to do with the translation issues?We must seek him as a hidden treasure.[Your like what do tire have to do with cars?]
 

ResidentAlien

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How do we know what the original ten commandments really say, if not for the copy, which is included in scripture?
We don't, that's my point. But I believe God has preserved the ten commandments. Even though the copies we have may not match the originals word-for-word, God has preserved the meaning He intended to impart.
 

justbyfaith

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God wanted His unadulterated message of salvation to be perfect because He loves us.

And because He is Omnipotent and sovereign, He was able to give us His unadulterated message in the kjv, specifically.
 

Lucy-Pevensie

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Gal 2:11 (kjv), But when Peter was come to Antioch, I withstood him to the face, because he was to be blamed.

Gal 2:11 (ESV), But when Cephas came to Antioch, I opposed him to his face, because he stood condemned.
The ONE WORD you are obsessing over is: καταγινώσκω (kataginōskō) to determine against, condemn, blame, reprehend .
It occurs 2 more times in the NT. 1 John 3:20 & 1 John 3:21. In both of those the KJV translators chose to use 'condemn'

It seems the ESV translators were being more consistent.
 
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We don't, that's my point. But I believe God has preserved the ten commandments. Even though the copies we have may not match the originals word-for-word, God has preserved the meaning He intended to impart.
At some point that is secular.Because it implies we will never have him in this life, time just his book.Remember it is written his sheep will know his voice.
 

ResidentAlien

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All I'm trying to point out in this post is the KJV translators weren't KJV only. All you have to do is read their Preface and you can see I'm right.

KJV only (or finally) is a teaching the KJV translators would find foreign and completely ridiculous.
 
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God wanted His unadulterated message of salvation to be perfect because He loves us.

And because He is Omnipotent and sovereign, He was able to give us His unadulterated message in the kjv, specifically.
I'm sure you won't understand what i'm saying here,,,rule laws principles...well that's the law. Grace is family & friends he should be your principal notice the pal ending he should be your friend.
 

fredoheaven

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Nov 17, 2015
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. No cause therefore why the word translated should be denied to be the word, or forbidden to be current, notwithstanding that some imperfections and blemishes may be noted in the setting forth of it."

To put it simply: the KJV translators were not KJV only!
Here the KJV translators are taking note of the previous Protestant English Versions from Tyndale, Coverdale to Bishops Bible. that's why there was a need for a new translation for the common people and to be appointed to be read in the churches. The KJV translators do not deny they are the words of God but have some imperfections and blemishes that need to purify and KJV as the result of these purifications.
 

Lucy-Pevensie

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Perseverance of the Saints (the "P" of TULIP in Calvinism).

Of course, even if Peter did stand condemned, he was able to come back to the Lord and as soon as he would, he would be in right standing with God again and therefore if he died he would go to heaven.

But if he went on into the next life while he still "stood condemned" he would in fact be condemned to hell.

That's what "condemned" means.
Not in the context of the chapter. You are sacrificing reading comprehension over worry about some doctrine or other.