BREAKING BREAD

Have you considered that using leaven bread a sin when taking communion? Since the bread represents his body and if we do use leaven bread we are saying the Lord was sinful or is it just symbolic to you?

The whole idea of the Passover and the Feast of Unleavened Bread (which followed it) was to establish the fact that leaven represents sin and corruption. So the Lord's Supper should really have unleavened bread and unfermented grape juice as the elements to properly represent Christ. Paul also says that we are to purge out the leaven of malice and wickedness from our lives.

1 Cor. 11:27

Whoever, therefore, eats the bread or drinks the cup of the Lord in an unworthy manner will be guilty of profaning the body and blood of the Lord.

Eating and drinking unworthy has to do with the spiritual estate of the person and not the makeup of the elements employed.

why grape juice?

Because Christ called it "the fruit of the vine" and it would be unfermented. To properly represent the blood of the sinless Son of God, there should be nothing connected to leaven. It is interesting to note that in connection with the Lord's Supper, the word "wine" does not appear anywhere. Rather it is "the cup".

And he took the cup, and gave thanks, and gave it to them, saying, Drink ye all of it; For this is my blood of the New Testament, which is shed for many for the remission of sins. But I say unto you, I will not drink henceforth of this fruit of the vine, until that day when I drink it new with you in my Father's kingdom. (Mt 26:27-29)

I just bought some yeast rolls to go with vegetable beef soup im fixing tomorrow.

Don't try to spoil it for me.



Mathew 15:11
What goes into someone’s mouth does not defile them, but what comes out of their mouth, that is what defiles them.”

You are off on a tangent. We are discussing the Lord's Supper (also called "the Breaking of Bread", and also called (in the non-Catholic sense) "the Eucharist" (Giving of Thanks) -- εὐχαριστέω* (eucharisteō ) found in this verse: And he took the cup, and gave thanks*, and gave it to them, saying, Drink ye all of it (Mt 26:27), Also Luke 22:17,19.

i don't think "in an unworthy manner" is referring to the contents of the cup or the bread but the heart of the person partaking.

it's an adverbial clause referring to the action of taking, not to a noun.

look at the preceding text. is he talking about the contents of the cup and ingredients of the bread or about the conduct of those taking them?

he is rebuking them because some people are eating all the food and drinking all the wine **note** even to the point of getting drunk - indicating clearly this ain't grape juice - while others are going hungry.

this isn't even the paltry-portion ritual we do today. it's much more like a fellowship supper, and they drink hooch, and that's not the problem

How do you explain 1 Corinthians 11:21?

some are getting drunk, and the apostle says nothing about what they eat and drink but about how they are being selfish.

seems clear that the wine is actually wine.

inconclusive.

wine produced from grapes is equally "fruit of the vine" - and so is grape jelly for your PBJ sandwich. it's made from grapes.

Apparently the church at Corinth was having a fellowship meal prior to partaking of the Lord's Supper, and they were being selfish and ill-mannered (even drunken). Paul had to admonish them.

But when it came to the Lord's Supper, this is what Paul said: After the same manner also he took the cup, when he had supped, saying, This cup is the new testament in my blood: this do ye, as oft as ye drink it, in remembrance of me. For as often as ye eat this bread, and drink this cup, ye do shew the Lord's death till he come. (vv 25,26) So once again we see that "wine" is never mentioned in this connection.

Since you chose to miss the point, there is no point in responding to this any further.

where do you get "prior to"?

1 Corinthians 11 reads exactly as though the meal is the eucharistic - vv 20-21

You're missing the point that 1 Corinthians 11:20-21 definitively puts literal eine in the context of the eucharist, and Matthew 26 neglecting to mention the specific contents of a seder meal by no means leaves us free to imagine them for ourselves.

what's eaten and drank at seder is known. literal wine, lamb, bitter herbs, unleavened bread.

"fruit of the vine" could refer to tomato juice. why doesn't it? context. and 1 Corinthians 11 also has context. that context indicates it's eucharist, and that there's an expectation of not going hungry, so there's more than one nibble each of food. and there's enough wine that someone not sharing well can get drunk. so it's literally wine, and it's not one small sip per.

somewhere in history we stopped having actual meals and started having a ritualistic taste instead.

and brother don't we see the same exchange of real substance for the merest morsel all over the church today???

this is the admonishment.

Not "wrong bread" or "that's supposed to be lemonade"

Fruit of the vine is a well known expression meaning wine, also grape juice does not keep at room temperature it would tend to ferment and turn into... wine or vinegar unless the Passover at that time coincided with the harvest? I do not think also that the natural leavening agents present on the grape skins that ferment the grape juice is a symbol for sin, for the bread yes as you have to add it in the mix like the pharisees added their own faulty understanding to the laws in their case they turned everything to vinegar.

The bread and wine were symbols for flesh and Blood, Jesus was flesh and blood.

Peace.