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The ESV also seems to say the same thing the KJV says.

Here is what the English Revised Version says according to biblehub, if I hadn't found it I might have gone insane reading what the other versions said and what biblehub says the Greek says (they add a comma which as far as I can tell is not found in the Greek). English Revised Version For...

That translation says something completely different than what the KJV says. I would absolutely stop using it based on what it says for that verse alone. Here's what the KJV says, I think you should consider it, Romans 10:4 (KJV) “For Christ is the end of the law for righteousness to every one...

No offense, but I don't think you really paid attention to my question. What do you think that verse means? It says Christ is the end of the law for righteousness to everyone that believeth. Take a moment to consider it. If we no longer need the law to be righteous what is the point in following...

I think it might be referring to difficulties someone might have in following the law, I would have to read the surrounding verses to try and actually understand what it means, I'll reply again if I do that (I'm kind of worn out right now, sorry).

Romans 10:4 “For Christ is the end of the law for righteousness to every one that believeth.” What exactly do you think this means? If we can be righteous without the law what is the point in following it? 1 John 5:17 “All unrighteousness is sin: and there is a sin not unto death.”...

I'm not sure if I agree with you that sinfulness in general is disobedience to God's law in general, if you're referring to "the law". Those who have sinned without law shall also perish without law is something that is written in Romans 2 (KJV), so it's possible to sin while not being under the...

Well, if my understanding is correct Jesus followed the law to every tittle of it and didn't teach anyone to disobey it, so he did not come to abolish it... but like he said to fulfill it. I'm not sure lawlessness refers to disobedience to the law, but perhaps sinfulness in general.

I mainly read from the KJV, I guess because it seems like the most trustworthy. I don't know if there's anything wrong with making a more modern translation, but to actually go ahead and do it when there already exists a usable English translation might expose a bias someone has towards the...

Well I mainly read from the KJV. It says, John 17:5 “And now, O Father, glorify thou me with thine own self with the glory which I had with thee before the world was.” It seems like Jesus is asking the Father to glorify him now, with the glory he had with the Father before the world was...

Hey, 2ndTimothyGroup, The KJV reads differently than the NLT, Matthew 26:15-16 (KJV) 15 And said unto them, What will ye give me, and I will deliver him unto you? And they covenanted with him for thirty pieces of silver. 16 And from that time he sought opportunity to betray him. I was able...

Romans 10:4 “For Christ is the end of the law for righteousness to every one that believeth.” No distinction is being made about any law that is being followed whatsoever, it just says "the law", why wouldn't someone just assume that it was the law that was meant? The KJV translators...

Romans 6:14 “For sin shall not have dominion over you: for ye are not under the law, but under grace.” Romans 10:4 “For Christ is the end of the law for righteousness to every one that believeth.” These verses seem to be saying that believers are not under the law and do not have to follow it...

Jesus was sent to the earth when he was conceived in Mary's womb unless I'm somehow mistaken.

I think Jesus was talking about what things were like before he made the earth, or possibly before the beginning, like before everything started.

1 Corinthians 6:9-10 (KJV) 9 Know ye not that the unrighteous shall not inherit the kingdom of God? Be not deceived: neither fornicators, nor idolaters, nor adulterers, nor effeminate, nor abusers of themselves with mankind, 10 Nor thieves, nor covetous, nor drunkards, nor revilers, nor...

The unforgivable sin is blasphemy against the Holy Spirit.

I don't know much about Greek, but that might just be how the language works, eis can be used for in as it can be used for other purposes. The KJV translators thought it appropriate to translate the words to "believe in" without putting extra requirements on what Jesus was saying. The immediate...

I think I understand what you're saying, but I don't understand how the additional language can be added for trusting in him as Savior. If the original Greek doesn't include that language and basically says from what I can gather from the Greek pisteuōn (Strong's 4100: From pistis; to have...

Also there doesn't seem to be much emphasis on receiving Jesus from what I know in the rest of the New Testament, I think the only mention of it might be that part in John 1.