a challenge for those who believe Jesus allows divorce after adultery

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phil112

Guest
All too many seek to know abouit specific sin(s) expecially of others, when they should be seeking profound understanding of grace, and living in it.

Anyone may judge what is correct for himself: Think about this and live it in Jesus Christ, Yeshua..
Romans 10:2-4 "For I bear them record that they have a zeal of God, but not according to knowledge. For they being ignorant of God's righteousness, and going about to establish their own righteousness, have not submitted themselves unto the righteousness of God.

For Christ is the end of the law for righteousness to every one that believeth."

If you would read and study His word you wouldn't make such ridiculous statements. Christ judges what is correct for every single person. You want to establish your own righteousness, go ahead, but you're making a serious mistake.
 

JaumeJ

Senior Member
Jul 2, 2011
21,592
6,825
113
Jesus Christ teaches us to judge for ourselves what is rright. This is not a hard lesson, nor complicated to the simple mind. We must judge for ourselves in the sight of God what is correct for ourselves, otherwise we are indeed hypocrites according to our Teacher and Master.
 
V

VioletReigns

Guest
Brother AVoice, I am honestly trying to wrap my head around the OP and subsequent posts by you. I've often wondered if a huge majority of the church was in grave error for two reasons:
1. God hates divorce
2. Divorce is now an epidemic

But you're losing me with so many grammatical rules and such lengthy translations. :p I apologize, but I could better understand it in layman's terms.

Also, I have a question for you. What is the genuine motive of your heart for the OP? (And please keep it short and sweet, for my sake.) :eek:
 
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jeff_peacemkr

Guest
you are right very much in (1) and (2), as Scripture has never changed, while men keep changing and putting tradition over Scripture. don't let voluminous arguments (many words) dissuade you nor convince you. the truth is truth, and Yahweh has shown you so far what is good. -- no divorce. He hates divorce. -- in Yahshua's time, they all knew what He said, and it was simple. 2 people married and consumated could not divorce for any reason, and if one remarried after being divorced, they commited adultery, no question. simple and true. as Yahshua says.
the only time Yahshua admitted a cause for divorce, was during the betrothal period , the engagement time, BEFORE the union was consummated. NOT afterwards. afterwards, the UNbeliever could leave, but the believers were bound to NOT MARRY until their first spouse died, whether the first spouse was faithful or not.

remember what happened if a man visited a prostitute. ? Yahshua said "they became ONE FLESH" (just as if they were married !!!!! yes - a man and a prostitute in one visit "BECAME ONE FLESH" (and a terrible judgment awaits)

same for a teenager and his girl friend, if they sin together, they BECOME ONE FLESH.... (and it's obvious many to this again and again and again... and the judgment is sure , unwavering, from Yahweh, according to Scripture).


Brother AVoice, I am honestly trying to wrap my head around the OP and subsequent posts by you. I've often wondered if a huge majority of the church was in grave error for two reasons:
1. God hates divorce
2. Divorce is now an epidemic
But you're losing me with so many grammatical rules and such lengthy translations. :p I apologize, but I could better understand it in layman's terms.
Also, I have a question for you. What is the genuine motive of your heart for the OP? (And please keep it short and sweet, for my sake.) :eek:
 
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VioletReigns

Guest
you are right very much in (1) and (2), as Scripture has never changed, while men keep changing and putting tradition over Scripture. don't let voluminous arguments (many words) dissuade you nor convince you. the truth is truth, and Yahweh has shown you so far what is good. -- no divorce. He hates divorce. -- in Yahshua's time, they all knew what He said, and it was simple. 2 people married and consumated could not divorce for any reason, and if one remarried after being divorced, they commited adultery, no question. simple and true. as Yahshua says.
the only time Yahshua admitted a cause for divorce, was during the betrothal period , the engagement time, BEFORE the union was consummated. NOT afterwards. afterwards, the UNbeliever could leave, but the believers were bound to NOT MARRY until their first spouse died, whether the first spouse was faithful or not.

remember what happened if a man visited a prostitute. ? Yahshua said "they became ONE FLESH" (just as if they were married !!!!! yes - a man and a prostitute in one visit "BECAME ONE FLESH" (and a terrible judgment awaits)

same for a teenager and his girl friend, if they sin together, they BECOME ONE FLESH.... (and it's obvious many to this again and again and again... and the judgment is sure , unwavering, from Yahweh, according to Scripture).
Brother Jeff, thank you for explaining in simpler terms. But how does this all pan out? It seems very confusing. What about people who have not yet married and who are "becoming one flesh" with many others? Are they considered married to the first one they slept with? And what about when two people who are married and have repented of their past fornications. Should they now divorce because they realized they were adulterers before they married? What about the woman caught in the act of adultery whom Jesus delivered to salvation? Assuming she was single, could she then get married once she was made new?

 
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jeff_peacemkr

Guest
this pans out only when holding simply and singly to God's Word (as God speaks the truth always, and God is ALIVE). if any other source is trusted and followed, all that follows is more sin , in sin. and no church likes this, and all flesh hates the truth, so it is very rare to find those willing to risk everything for the truth....

practically, the only way I've ever seen that works to maintain a good testimony in jesus, is for anyone whose past 'partners' are still alive to simply remain uncommitted until all the past partners die , literally, before even thinking about marriage/ union with another, and then only still if God permits. yes. repenting includes separating until all previous 'partners' or spouses are dead.... simply, and perhaps very difficult. and only by God's Grace. (those who disobeyed this, have no testimony(in Jesus) to the world - it has been soiled and not recovered, and they don't 'grow' in Christ any more, as far as I have seen them to do.)

it is very very difficult for the modern mind to comprehend,
and made no simpler by all the churches that readily deny God's Word on the matter.

perhaps a little help , and gentler sounding, is found at "the marriage bed is upside down" , if you can find the web page.




Brother Jeff, thank you for explaining in simpler terms. But how does this all pan out? It seems very confusing. What about people who have not yet married and who are "becoming one flesh" with many others? Are they considered married to the first one they slept with? And what about when two people who are married and have repented of their past fornications. Should they now divorce because they realized they were adulterers before they married? What about the woman caught in the act of adultery whom Jesus delivered to salvation? Assuming she was single, could she then get married once she was made new?

 
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jeff_peacemkr

Guest
p.s. it is no comfort, that most people, everywhere , no matter if they think they are strong in faith or right with God or 'pillars' in a church,
still go along
with man's traditions instead of subjecting everything in their life to Jesus (as it is written in Scripture).
not only is it no comfort,
but persecution to the ekklesia in every country, by every group of men , practically, because the world(and the world churches) cannot stand those who love and abide in truth.

just a reminder that it is as Jesus says, always, "woe to those who are comfortable(with man's ways/doing what is good in their own eyes) now, for they have received their comfort"
and "blessed are those who suffer now, who are persecuted for My sake, for they shall be comforted."
 
A

AVoice

Guest
Brother AVoice, I am honestly trying to wrap my head around the OP and subsequent posts by you. I've often wondered if a huge majority of the church was in grave error for two reasons:
1. God hates divorce
2. Divorce is now an epidemic

But you're losing me with so many grammatical rules and such lengthy translations. :p I apologize, but I could better understand it in layman's terms.

Also, I have a question for you. What is the genuine motive of your heart for the OP? (And please keep it short and sweet, for my sake.) :eek:
Thanks for your post.
You are right, God hates divorce. He has always hated it since the very beginning. While we correctly understand that God hates it, we see Moses having allowed it, later on, for the hardness of their hearts. When someone allows something for the hardness of heart, it is never a good thing, since hardness of heart is not a good thing. When something is allowed for hardness of heart, it is a situation where the person allowing it is forced to do so because of the circumstances; they have no choice. It is seen as the lesser of evils in a tough situation where a choice has to be made, and hence, making the choice wherein the worse of evils would be allowed, is just not the responsible thing to do.

But now we are not under Moses. We are under Jesus under the NT. We are under grace. Grace in a person's life makes them willingly follow truth, even if it brings hardship, because of their love for truth. The truth matters more than anything else to a child of God. Regeneration of the Holy Spirit has been granted by grace through Jesus' death whereby hardness is taken away from hearts.

You know the scripture about a little leaven leavens the whole lump? Well, that is what has happened that has caused the epidemic of divorce and remarriage. Once the exception clause in Matt 5:32 and 19:9 began to be asserted by leading pastors to be allowing divorce, (especially among the charismatics and evangelicals), the floodgates of the works of the flesh were unleashed. Those pastors and leaders will be called into judgment for every single soul who will be condemned to hell for having lived a life of adultery by remarriage. They must face responsibility for having assisted in their condemnation by way of promoting false doctrine. And they simply have no excuse. Sure, there is an exception clause in Matt 5:32 and 19:9, but those verses with the exception are not easy to understand; while the other 4 main references in the NT, which also directly address the doctrine, ARE, in and of themselves very easy to understand. So those pastors have no excuse because how could they have so flippantly taken on an interpretation of the difficult verses in Matt 5 and 19 that directly contradicts the easy to understand verses in Mark, Luke, and by Paul?

So my motive, for standing with Jesus on the correct understanding of this VERY important doctrine is to bring back into the light the erring children of God. Those erring, who have been led to believe that Jesus allows what God hates, are in most cases victims of pastors and leaders who make them feel intimidated. Many Christians are under delusion that they must follow the mainstream or they are in error.
This doctrine has heaven and hell in the balance; if a person is on the wrong side at judgment then they cannot inherit the Kingdom of God since adulterers shall not inherit the kingdom of God. Remarriage is adultery as Jesus stated seven times. Those pushing that Jesus allows divorce and remarriage and hence he allows adultery are in darkness. As children of light, Christians are supposed to help people come out of darkness. I am simply trying to help others with the 'talents' God has given me.

It sounds like you also care about the truth. I am looking for others of like mind who would like to work together as a team to help educate and bring a restoration of truth to Christians on this foundational Christian doctrine. If you want, you can contact me by the forum private message board.
 
A

AVoice

Guest
Brother Jeff, thank you for explaining in simpler terms. But how does this all pan out? It seems very confusing. What about people who have not yet married and who are "becoming one flesh" with many others? Are they considered married to the first one they slept with? And what about when two people who are married and have repented of their past fornications. Should they now divorce because they realized they were adulterers before they married? What about the woman caught in the act of adultery whom Jesus delivered to salvation? Assuming she was single, could she then get married once she was made new?

Violet,
I appreciate Jeff's willingness to help, but perhaps he has made a mistake in writing or is misunderstanding.
The reference by Paul to fornicators becoming 'one flesh' was not intended by Paul to suggest that they are one flesh 'in marriage' as if that act binds them together till death. They have made themselves only one flesh 'in fornication'. That is a sin and in Jesus Christ sin is passed away by forgiveness and becoming a new creature, ("behold all things are become new").
The sexual act was ordained to be done ONLY by the married, whereby they become one flesh IN MARRIAGE. When Paul identifies the physical sexual act OUTSIDE of marriage as having been made "one flesh" thereby, he is simply emphasizing its misuse. It was only made for marriage. To do that OUTSIDE of marriage is a perversion of the correct intention of the sexual act of becoming "one flesh".

A person, a woman for example, who has committed fornication with many men and then later becomes a Christian, will naturally come to understand her sinful past. She repents of that past and later chooses to become married. Her having been made 'one flesh', numerous times by fornicating, does not prohibit her from being able to get married. Her marriage will be the FIRST time she has become "one flesh" in marriage. One flesh in marriage is binding until death as the old solemn phrase states; "till death do us part".
One flesh in fornication is absolutely NOT binding till death. It is a sin, and sin can be repented of, and is among what is "passed away" by the grace of God in Christ Jesus.
 
A

AVoice

Guest
this pans out only when holding simply and singly to God's Word (as God speaks the truth always, and God is ALIVE). if any other source is trusted and followed, all that follows is more sin , in sin. and no church likes this, and all flesh hates the truth, so it is very rare to find those willing to risk everything for the truth....

practically, the only way I've ever seen that works to maintain a good testimony in jesus, is for anyone whose past 'partners' are still alive to simply remain uncommitted until all the past partners die , literally, before even thinking about marriage/ union with another, and then only still if God permits. yes. repenting includes separating until all previous 'partners' or spouses are dead.... simply, and perhaps very difficult. and only by God's Grace. (those who disobeyed this, have no testimony(in Jesus) to the world - it has been soiled and not recovered, and they don't 'grow' in Christ any more, as far as I have seen them to do.)

it is very very difficult for the modern mind to comprehend,
and made no simpler by all the churches that readily deny God's Word on the matter.

perhaps a little help , and gentler sounding, is found at "the marriage bed is upside down" , if you can find the web page.
Jeff,
There are many Messianic Jews or similar groups that are mistakenly holding to Moses in contradiction to what Jesus has brought.
I suppose you are using what Moses said to support this teaching that fornication binds the two persons involved and makes them 'married'.
If it made them married then it is not fornication. Fornication is an unlawful sexual act. If a man having sex with a woman automatically makes them married then the act cannot have been a sin.

Yes, I used Paul's scripture:
2 Cor 5:
[SUP] 17 [/SUP]Therefore if any man be in Christ, he is a new creature: old things are passed away; behold, all things are become new.

Notice I did not use it as many do to allow a second marriage. That is a misuse of that verse. Forgiveness in Christ does not disannul a lawful marriage, since a lawful marriage is NOT a sin. Sin is what is passed away, not a lawful marriage. Marriage is what God has ordained and sees as "very good". To use the verse with regard to past sin having been forgiven and passed away, is a correct use.

Please stop binding people to what the NT does NOT bind them to. The fornication a person has committed in the past does NOT bind them 'in marriage' to the person they fornicated with. Even the word "fornication" supports that, since fornication is a sin and sin can be forgiven in Jesus and be cast away, as far as the East is from the West.

Your doctrine is in effect saying fornication is not forgiven in Jesus. It binds the person until death.
Only marriage does that, but you are asserting that fornication does that. Please stop it.
 
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A

AVoice

Guest
Brother AVoice, I am honestly trying to wrap my head around the OP and subsequent posts by you. I've often wondered if a huge majority of the church was in grave error for two reasons:
1. God hates divorce
2. Divorce is now an epidemic

But you're losing me with so many grammatical rules and such lengthy translations. :p I apologize, but I could better understand it in layman's terms.

Also, I have a question for you. What is the genuine motive of your heart for the OP? (And please keep it short and sweet, for my sake.) :eek:
Violet, This is a copy of a post I made before, that explains about what the exception clause in Matt 5:32 and 19:9 is referring to. I will be very glad to answer your questions about it. I will try to be short and sweet in any future responses.

For those not aware of what the OP is about: it points out that the exception clause for "fornication" in Matt 5:31,32 was spoken exclusively with regard to an entirely different kind of divorce than what most of us are familiar with.
There existed, among the people who Jesus was speaking to, an entirely other and different kind of divorce, which was for fornication, not for adultery.

The pertinent verses in Deut 22;23,24 and Deut 20:7 and Matt 1:18-24 are the key to understanding how the entirely different kind of divorce, done while still single, can be very sensibly understood in that context of Matt 5:31,32 to be what the exception clause was intended to identify.

If we had grown up in a culture where the terms 'husband' and 'wife' and 'divorce' had dual definitions, [applicable to both the betrothed as well as the joined in marriage], it would have been much easier for us to come to understand how the exception clause jumps off to identify that OTHER kind of divorce whereby that OTHER kind of husband divorces that OTHER kind of wife.

Therefore the terms they used in ancient time, the titles of "husband" and "wife" and the word "put away" (divorce) as they also applied to the couple not joined in marriage, but only betrothed, greatly helps someone to understand how the exception clause was able to jump off to that other kind of divorce. Without that knowledge, people are understandably stuck in the hole of assuming, [by virtue of their limited knowledge], that the divorce referred to in the exception clause, for fornication, has to be the normal post marital divorce (for adultery) that we are all familiar with today.


Matt 5:
31 It hath been said, Whosoever shall put away his wife, let him give her a writing of divorcement:
32 But I say unto you, That whosoever shall put away his wife, saving for the cause of fornication, causeth her to commit adultery: and whosoever shall marry her that is divorced committeth adultery.

The long sentence of these two verses broken down to be more easily discussed:

A) It hath been said, Whosoever shall put away his wife, let him give her a writing of divorcement:
B) But I say unto you,
1) That whosoever shall put away his wife,
2) saving for the cause of fornication
3) causeth her to commit adultery:
4) and whosoever shall marry her that is divorced committeth adultery.
 
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Nick01

Senior Member
Jul 15, 2013
1,272
26
48
I'm going to make this my post in this thread, because I feel we're really just circling back around onto the same points again. When I simply start copying things out of my earlier posts repeatedly, I'm about done.

Name just one.

If there is NO exception at all (except in a bethrothal scenario), then your reading (in fact, especially your reading, because you require the text to be strictly literal and exhaustive) would still require a man to remain married to a wife trying to kill him, or who eats their children. There is, in fact, no possible circumstance in which divorce is permitted in a married situation.

and
Also worth pointing out, again, that this perceived 'problem' still exists in your reading of the text. In other words, according to your argument, you must also believe that an innocently divorced woman (under any circumstances) cannot remarry, even though, on your argument, the man who legitimately divorces his wife for betrothal infidelity can.


I'll also add to this explicitly (this is what I was referring to in my most recent scenario) - if you apply the same standard to your own reading as you do mine, a man cannot divorce a fiancee who is trying to kill him, though he may divorce her for porneia. So, if there is a problem as you claim, it seems as much your problem as anyone else's, at least if we're otherwise consistent in how we read both interpretations.

AVoice said:
There is no record of anyone having confronted him with the facts that I have presented....


Precisely. No one confronts him, although people would argue with Origen about plenty of other things (and Origen elsewhere is more than capable of pointing out those areas where there is difference of opinion in the church). And, as I said, Origen is merely and example - as you yourself have acknowledged, no one else in the early church interpreted the text in this way either. The fact that someone, completely lost to us, hypothetically COULD have argued with Origen on this point is not in any way evidence that they DID. Origen does not furnish us with any such evidence, certainly.

I am not the one who has presented the mental gymnastics of trying to justify how if a wife does something WORSE than adultery the man cannot divorce her.


No gymnastics involved, friend. Because you say it is so does not make it so.

Again, even if I argued that Jesus necessarily means the exception exhaustively as you argue (i.e. literally only porneia is grounds for divorce), that doesn't make it logically convoluted, it just makes it difficult to do. Just like not committing adultery with your eyes, or being a rich person trying to get into heaven, or hating your father and mother, or cutting of your hands if you sin. It all depends on Jesus reasons for mentioning porneia.

The point being, the sentence is still literally coherent - I understand what would be required in such a scenario where I might have to live with a wife trying to kill me, versus being able to divorce wife sleeping with someone else. IF THAT WAS WHAT JESUS WAS ACTUALLY SAYING, it would still be literally coherent and sensical. You keep using the words 'literally sensible' on your argument on this point, but I'm not sure you are using those words correctly.

And AGAIN, this problem still exists in your reading. As your argument stands on the basis of this passage, a person in a betrothal could not divorce their fiancee if said fiancee was trying to kill him.

Finally, if you are arguing for a position that does not require "mental gymnastics" and is the natural, most straightforward and coherent reading, I struggle to understand your extravagant OP, and subsequents. Multiple people in this thread (even recently) have called you out on your complicated arguments, which, as I have tried to demonstrate as I've gone through them, are either strawmen, or arguments based on specious understandings of how language works. Even if I were to concede the arguments themselves had merit, I'm struggling to see how you see your position can reasonably be described as clear-cut, or obvious, or 'natural', based on their form alone.

That is why this discussion should be exciting to you. In all of recorded history of theological discussion on this topic, as far as we know, not one author is known to exist to have discovered the fact that I am presenting here concerning Matt 5:31,32


This sentence rang alarm bells in my head. I hope it did in others. I am, naturally, deeply distrustful of viewpoints people claim they have discovered that are completely novel, and argued on as shaky grounds as these. You make arguments based on literalness and grammar, both in English and Koine Greek, yet you are yelling into the silence of the Greek fathers themselves, as far as this topic goes.

Don't get me wrong, I am not rejecting it on the grounds that it is novel, alone. But it gives me cause for caution when people make highly loaded theological arguments, with incredible potential ramifications on how people live their lives, and those arguments are partially based on the use of original languages, and yet these arguments are not only not accepted, but not even NOTED by the ancients, and are almost entirely ignored by modern scholarship on the topic. On their own merits as I see them, they are simply not convincing. And I don't think any further discussion (and believe me when I say I have given hours of thought to this topic) is going to help.

Despite my opposition, thank you at least for trying to explain your position, instead of simply asserting things. I wish you well. :)
 
J

JesusistheChrist

Guest
JesusIsTheChrist,

If I can summarise all of your discussion (I did read all your two posts, but don't feel I need to systematicall reply), it is that - whether or not an exception is permitted, whether or not porneia and moicheio overlap, we should pursue reconciliation before divorce.

I agree entirely. Please don't read what I have written as me trying to justify shotgun divorces once you 'get over the line' of legitimacy. I think the whole point of Jesus' teaching is to defend the seriousness of marriage. I think reconciliation is always preferable, precisely because our God, one the one hand uses divorce language of himself, but also pursues his adulterous wife (Israel, as the exemplar of humanity). But that does not change the fact that Jesus still provides an exception, and that the Scriptures, Old and New, provide avenues for people to leave marriages that have failed or unworkable. So I want to affirm your writing, but also just push back a little bit by saying that one can still fight for marriage, and fight for its purity, while still acknowledging human sin and the possibility of everything, even marriage, being imperfect and sometimes deeply flawed this side of heaven.
Hi, Nick.

I'm glad to see that you agree that reconciliation ought to be our first and foremost heartset/mindset and I also agree that there still is an "exception clause" to consider, but I still believe that you're misunderstanding what "the exception clause" actually pertains to. Hopefully, by the end of this post, you'll have something else to consider in relation to the same. I must add, though, that whereas you stated that "we should pursue reconciliation BEFORE divorce", the scriptures make it clear that we should also pursue the same AFTER divorce. In fact, that's the actual context of what you originally cited from Jeremiah chapter 3.

Nick01 said:
As to your comments on fornication and adultery, I think you are stretching things. Here is the crux of what you say:

JesusistheChrist said:
What we read in Jeremiah chapter 3 in relation to Israel's "harlotry/whoredom" or "fornication" was written in relation to THEIR OWN ESPOUSAL OR BETROTHAL PERIOD. Yes, like us, even though "the LORD" referred to them as being "married" (Jeremiah 3:14) unto Him, they were really only still in THEIR ESPOUSAL OR BETROTHAL PERIOD.
In other words, you are saying that even though the Scriptures themselves will refer to the Lord and Israel as being 'married', even though the Lord calls her 'wife', even though he uses the plain old word of 'divorce' to describe his relationship with her, he is actually meaning specifically a betrothed, non married state, in a way that has real, tangible impacts on our understanding of marriage and divorce in Matthew 5.

I would have some sympathy for this position if you weren't be so inconsistent with your use of biblical language. Earlier, you accused me of thinking that the Lord somehow mucked up with the words that he was using. Now, you expect me to agree that in Jeremiah, the language of marriage is used rather amorphously and freely, but in Matthew it is incredibly specific and exclusive.

And, again, I need to point out that your argument harms your own position. If the Lord sees fit to see betrothal and actual marriage as almost identical, and certainly semantically interchangeable (as your argument in Jeremiah requires), why do we expect him now to delineate so finely and so crucially in Matthew 5, let alone expect those who heard the message at the time to make the distinction, given their understanding of marriage was formed by the culture of the Torah?

It just doesn't ring true, to me, unfortunately. The only ways I can see for your position to become more consistant are either to hold to your understanding of Jeremiah 3 and thus concede that it is unlikely in the extreme that Jesus is only speaking of betrothal infidelity and divorce (excluding marital infidelity) in Matthew 5, or to hold to your current technical reading of Matthew 5 and admit that Jeremiah 3 militates against that reading. Either way still holds its own problems, in my view, but at least they are more consistent.
Like it or not, Nick, scripture does describe us as only being in the "espousal" stage of our "marriage" to the Lord and, quite frankly, I believe that your failure to recognize/admit the same is causing you to misunderstand certain aspects of Biblical teaching. Again, we read:

"For I am jealous over you with godly jealousy: for I have espoused you to one husband, that I may present you as a chaste virgin to Christ." (II Corinthians 11:2)

The Apostle Paul plainly stated that CHRISTIANS are presently only "espoused to one husband", CHRIST, and he even likened his own "jealousy" in regard to "presenting CHRISTIANS as chaste virgins to CHRIST" with "godly jealousy". IOW, his "jealousy" for an "ESPOUSED VIRGIN" mirrored "GOD'S JEALOUSY" in relation to the same. With such being the case, Nick, why doesn't what I've stated to you in my posts in relation to the same "ring true"? Is God wrong? Is Paul wrong? No, Nick, with all due respect, you're wrong and you really need to adjust your currently held erroneous belief to the truth of scripture in this regard. That CHRISTIANS are only presently seen BY GOD as "virgins" who are "espoused" to Christ ought to be made plain by the following parable of Jesus as well:

Matthew chapter 25

[1] Then shall the kingdom of heaven be likened unto ten virgins, which took their lamps, and went forth to meet the bridegroom.
[2] And five of them were wise, and five were foolish.
[3] They that were foolish took their lamps, and took no oil with them:
[4] But the wise took oil in their vessels with their lamps.
[5] While the bridegroom tarried, they all slumbered and slept.
[6] And at midnight there was a cry made, Behold, the bridegroom cometh; go ye out to meet him.
[7] Then all those virgins arose, and trimmed their lamps.
[8] And the foolish said unto the wise, Give us of your oil; for our lamps are gone out.
[9] But the wise answered, saying, Not so; lest there be not enough for us and you: but go ye rather to them that sell, and buy for yourselves.
[10] And while they went to buy, the bridegroom came; and they that were ready went in with him to the marriage: and the door was shut.
[11] Afterward came also the other virgins, saying, Lord, Lord, open to us.
[12] But he answered and said, Verily I say unto you, I know you not.
[13] Watch therefore, for ye know neither the day nor the hour wherein the Son of man cometh.


These "ten VIRGINS" all "went forth to meet the bridegroom", Nick, BUT THEY WERE ONLY IN THEIR ESPOUSAL PERIOD. They all started with "oil", a type of the Holy Ghost, in their "burning lamps" (they were all "children of the light"), but five of these "VIRGINS" ran out of "oil" and WHEN THE BRIDEGROOM CAME, THEN THEY THAT WERE READY WENT IN WITH HIM TO THE MARRIAGE. IOW, THE MARRIAGE WASN'T CONSUMMATED, SO TO SPEAK, UNTIL THE BRIDEGROOM RETURNED OR UNTIL THE SON OF MAN, JESUS CHRIST, CAME A SECOND TIME. What does this tell us, Nick? Again, it tells us that CHRISTIANS are only presently in their ESPOUSAL PERIOD in relation to their "marriage" to the Lord. Now, if you or anybody else believes that somehow Old Testament Israel wasn't only in their ESPOUSAL PERIOD and that somehow their own "marriage" to the Lord was consummated, spiritually speaking, BEFORE THE SECOND COMING OF THE LORD...well, then you've got A LOT OF EXPLAINING to do, Nick...A LOT OF EXPLAINING. Again, CHRISTIANS are only presently "ESPOUSED TO ONE HUSBAND" (II Corinthians 11:2), CHRIST, and we ought to be preparing for our "wedding day" or for the day when CHRIST COMES AGAIN. Yes, we read:

Revelation chapter 19

[7] Let us be glad and rejoice, and give honour to him: for the marriage of the Lamb is come, and his wife hath made herself ready.
[8] And to her was granted that she should be arrayed in fine linen, clean and white: for the fine linen is the righteousness of saints.
[9] And he saith unto me, Write, Blessed are they which are called unto the marriage supper of the Lamb. And he saith unto me, These are the true sayings of God.
[10] And I fell at his feet to worship him. And he said unto me, See thou do it not: I am thy fellowservant, and of thy brethren that have the testimony of Jesus: worship God: for the testimony of Jesus is the spirit of prophecy.
[11] And I saw heaven opened, and behold a white horse; and he that sat upon him was called Faithful and True, and in righteousness he doth judge and make war.

When is "the marriage of the Lamb" or "the marriage supper of the Lamb", Nick? You speak of it as if it is a PAST EVENT, BUT IT ISN'T. No, Nick, IT IS YET FUTURE and Christians ought to "making themselves ready" for the same in the same manner in which a natural bride prepares for her own wedding day:

Ephesians chapter 5

[25] Husbands, love your wives, even as Christ also loved the church, and gave himself for it;
[26] That he might sanctify and cleanse it with the washing of water by the word,
[27] That he might present it to himself a glorious church, not having spot, or wrinkle, or any such thing; but that it should be holy and without blemish.

Christ is returning for "a glorious church" or bride "not having spot, or wrinkle, or any such thing; but that it should be holy and without blemish" AND WE SHOULD BE PREPARING OURSELVES UNTIL THE TIME OF HIS RETURN SO THAT HE FINDS US IN THE JUST THE MANNER IN WHICH WE JUST READ WHEN HE RETURNS. I preached a sermon on this very text at my own wedding, Nick, almost 14 years ago...and my new in-laws and other invited guests got infuriated with me (initially) when I touched on this portion of scripture. Nick, 99% of them were meeting me for the very first time and I asked them what they would have thought if my wife (their daughter, sister, cousin, friend, etc.) had walked down the aisle in a torn and tattered gown with stains all over it? I'm not joking or exaggerating...it was like lightning bolts were coming out of their eye sockets when I asked such a thing. In their minds (initially), they felt that I was disrespecting or dishonoring my wife by asking such a thing, but when I turned it around to THE SPIRITUAL and said that Christ won't be "honored" by any such "bride"...well, then they got my point. Consider another parable of Jesus:

Matthew chapter 22

[1] And Jesus answered and spake unto them again by parables, and said,
[2] The kingdom of heaven is like unto a certain king, which made a marriage for his son,
[3] And sent forth his servants to call them that were bidden to the wedding: and they would not come.
[4] Again, he sent forth other servants, saying, Tell them which are bidden, Behold, I have prepared my dinner: my oxen and my fatlings are killed, and all things are ready: come unto the marriage.
[5] But they made light of it, and went their ways, one to his farm, another to his merchandise:
[6] And the remnant took his servants, and entreated them spitefully, and slew them.
[7] But when the king heard thereof, he was wroth: and he sent forth his armies, and destroyed those murderers, and burned up their city.
[8] Then saith he to his servants, The wedding is ready, but they which were bidden were not worthy.
[9] Go ye therefore into the highways, and as many as ye shall find, bid to the marriage.
[10] So those servants went out into the highways, and gathered together all as many as they found, both bad and good: and the wedding was furnished with guests.
[11] And when the king came in to see the guests, he saw there a man which had not on a wedding garment:
[12] And he saith unto him, Friend, how camest thou in hither not having a wedding garment? And he was speechless.
[13] Then said the king to the servants, Bind him hand and foot, and take him away, and cast him into outer darkness; there shall be weeping and gnashing of teeth.
[14] For many are called, but few are chosen.

Again, like it or not, Nick, as CHRISTIANS, we've been "bidden" to the marriage of God's Son. Again, THE WEDDING HASN'T YET TAKEN PLACE AND IT WON'T UNTIL CHRIST RETURNS. As such, unlike the man who was found "not having a wedding garment" ("the righteousness of the saints"), we'd better make sure that our own "garments" are found to be "white" when that day arrives.

You asked about "the culture of the Torah" and I'm basically stunned by your question. I mean, haven't you ALREADY BEEN SHOWN FROM THE TORAH that those who were in their "betrothal" or "espousal" period were considered to be husband and wife? Yes, Nick, you have already been shown the same. Similarly, haven't you ALREADY BEEN SHOWN how that Joseph, who was only ESPOUSED unto Mary, was minded to put her away privily? Well, what do you suppose Joseph had in mind in relation to the same IF NOT THE TORAH? My position is confirmed by BOTH the Old and New Testaments, Nick, but you've got Old Testament Israel somehow living in a COSUMMATED MARRIAGE, so to speak, when the New Testament saints aren't even in such a state. Seriously, Nick, you really do need to reconsider some of your presently held beliefs because they are at odds with each other.

Nick01 said:
As for your specific references to whoredom and adultery, I think you're selectively defining the ways Jeremiah uses those words. Porneia is used in reference not just to fornication with strangers, but with the land (v. 2). It is precisely through her fornications that she commits the adultery with stones and rocks (v. 9). It should be obvious that in neither case does the Lord mean to refer to physical fornications or adultery with specific people (although that is included), but that both words are used to describe Israel and Judah's idolatry. Read the whole chapter in one go. Both words are used figuratively, both used of relationships to things and people, and both ascribed to Israel/Judah in the context of her being in a relationship with God, and him calling her back to him.

For what it's worth, I think Jeremiah 3 is a beautiful depiction of what you argued for in terms of reconciliation. I just think your use of it as a prooftext is selective, mistaken and reductionist.
I've "selectively defined" nothing, Nick. In fact, ironically, I had to give a fuller context of Jeremiah chapter 3 in order to refute your own "selective definitions". Israel didn't "fornicate with the land", Nick. Here is what Jeremiah said:

"They say, If a man put away his wife, and she go from him, and become another man's, shall he return unto her again? shall not that land be greatly polluted? but thou hast played the harlot with many lovers; yet return again to me, saith the LORD. Lift up thine eyes unto the high places, and see where thou hast not been lien with. In the ways hast thou sat for them, as the Arabian in the wilderness; and thou hast polluted the land with thy whoredoms and with thy wickedness." (Jeremiah 3:1-2)

Israel POLLUTED the land with her whoredoms and such was directly related to what Jeremiah said in verse 1. Yes, as per Deuteronomy chapter 24 which Jeremiah was referencing, THE LAND BECAME GREATLY POLLUTED if a man put away his wife and she became another man's wife and then returned to her original husband. In spite of this precept which was given BECAUSE OF THE HARDNESS OF THEIR HEARTS, God Himself was still calling His Own wife back unto Himself. Also, Jeremiah chapter 3, in your shortened version, was originally YOUR "prooftext" and, again, I cited it in a fuller context to refute your own "selective definitions".

Anyhow, I'll leave you with this thought...

I don't know what your own beliefs are in relation to "once saved, always saved" (OSAS), but I personally believe the same to be a potentially damnable heresy. IOW, I fully believe that the Lord Himself can and will "put away" those who are unfaithful to Him (I'm talking about those who don't genuinely repent) DURING OUR ESPOUSAL PERIOD. IOW, once CHRIST RETURNS or once THE MARRIAGE SUPPER OF THE LAMB HAS COME AND OUR MARRIAGE IS CONSUMMATED, SO TO SPEAK, do you believe that Christ will "put away" anyone at that time? Again, the natural union between a man and his wife is supposed to mirror the spiritual union between Christ and His church. Whereas there is an "exception clause" for both a man or Christ to put away his/His wife DURING THE ESPOUSAL PERIOD, once the marriage is consummated or once the "two become one", then I simply don't see where they can ever become two again while they are yet alive.
 
J

JesusistheChrist

Guest
I'll also add to this explicitly (this is what I was referring to in my most recent scenario) - if you apply the same standard to your own reading as you do mine, a man cannot divorce a fiancee who is trying to kill him, though he may divorce her for porneia. So, if there is a problem as you claim, it seems as much your problem as anyone else's, at least if we're otherwise consistent in how we read both interpretations.

...

And AGAIN, this problem still exists in your reading. As your argument stands on the basis of this passage, a person in a betrothal could not divorce their fiancee if said fiancee was trying to kill him.
Hey, Nick.

I know that the comments quoted above weren't addressed to me, but I thought that I'd just make a quick observation just the same...

Israel "was" not only "trying to kill" Christ, the One to Whom she was allegedly "espoused", but she also had a hand in actually doing the same. Christ's response?

"Then opened he their understanding, that they might understand the scriptures, And said unto them, Thus it is written, and thus it behoved Christ to suffer, and to rise from the dead the third day: And that repentance and remission of sins should be preached in his name among all nations, beginning at Jerusalem." (Luke 24:45-47)

"Situational ethics" mean nothing, Nick. Christ Himself is always our example and He even sought RECONCILIATION with His Own murderers.
 
A

AVoice

Guest
I'm going to make this my post in this thread, because I feel we're really just circling back around onto the same points again. When I simply start copying things out of my earlier posts repeatedly, I'm about done.
Nick, please do not abandon me. You are way too valuable in this discussion.
We have had almost 2600 visits to this discussion. If only 1 percent are consistent repeat visitors, that means you have a dedicated audience of almost 26 persons. Don’t let them folks down. You get back here right now, you hear me? :)

I had intended to answer the more effective arguments you had presented earlier but because I started work this past week, I have not been able to focus on that task. I wanted you to identify one problem that you admitted exists under the divorce explanation, which you believe also exists under the betrothal explanation of the exception clause. I asked for one because I did not have time to go back and find and decide what was your best shot. The idea was for you to bring forth your best objection so I could focus on that, since I was limited in time and since you presented more than one possibility.

I'll also add to this explicitly (this is what I was referring to in my most recent scenario) - if you apply the same standard to your own reading as you do mine, a man cannot divorce a fiancee who is trying to kill him, though he may divorce her for porneia. So, if there is a problem as you claim, it seems as much your problem as anyone else's, at least if we're otherwise consistent in how we read both interpretations.

And AGAIN, this problem still exists in your reading. As your argument stands on the basis of this passage, a person in a betrothal could not divorce their fiancee if said fiancee was trying to kill him.
Nick, what you have written above is simply not true.
The mistake you are making is assuming that the above line of argument, which is valid against Matt 5:31,32 under the divorce for adultery explanation, can also apply to Matt 5:31,32 under the betrothal explanation. The two explanations, one where the exception clause is an essential clause, (for adultery) and the other where it is non essential, (in betrothal) demonstrate two very different behaviours in how each sentence functions overall.

The reason the challenge requires others to make a parallel is because the same parallels or versions thereof become useful in explaining this kind of argument. This, in reality, is extremely basic. This is not complicated or technical.
So let us take the version of your parallel, whereby the exception clause functions the way it functions in Matt 5:31,32 WHEN it is understood to be referring to the betrothal divorce and apply the same line of argument you used above and see if it works.
A) You have heard it said, "When riding your bike, yell very loudly at people on the street, and laugh when you see them get aggravated"
B) But I say to you,
1) anyone who yells loudly at people on the street,
E) except if their lives are in danger,
2) will cause those people unnecessary anguish,
3) and whoever joins in the yelling causes unnecessary anguish.

The exception clause above functions the way the exception clause in Matt 5:31,32 functions under the betrothal explanation. This is because the exception clause above jumps away to an entirely different kind of yelling than what Line A establishes to be the topic of discussion. It jumps away from the irresponsible kind to the responsible kind. Under the betrothal example the exception clause jumps to a completely different kind of divorce. Agreed?
So let us use the same line of reasoning you used:.
1) a man cannot divorce a fiancee who is trying to kill him, though he may divorce her for porneia.
2) A gang member riding his bike cannot yell loudly at a person on the street to let them know their house is in on fire or if their child is getting raped, though he may yell if their life is in danger.

The accusation of number 2, which claims that is what the sentence is literally saying cannot be made. Why? Precisely BECAUSE the exception clause is only a non essential clause and does NOT function the same way as does an essential clause. That accusation in number 2 cannot apply to the non essential clause in the above parallel about yelling anymore than can your assertion in number 1 apply to the exception clause under the betrothal explanation.
The exception clause in the parallel above, since it is jumping away to what is not even the specific topic of discussion anyway, carries with it an air of “you know what I mean” or “for example”:

A) You have heard it said, "When riding your bike, yell very loudly at people on the street, and laugh when you see them get aggravated"
B) But I say to you,
1) anyone who yells loudly at people on the street,
E) except if their lives are in danger, [‘for example’, ‘you catch my drift’, ‘you know what I mean’]
2) will cause those people unnecessary anguish,
3) and whoever joins in the yelling causes unnecessary anguish.

This kind of non essential clause naturally carries with it and takes upon itself that liberal connotation by virtue of the fact that it is only an added bit of extra information, not critical to the rest of the sentence. It is understood to be a disconnect, an aside. It can be completely omitted without any damage to the main points being made. It gives NO partial permission to do what Line A is specifically talking about.

In another forum a poster offered another parallel, which was modified, and we see the same thing:
First a background story: Harvest time has passed in the north and they are now sorting apples in the warehouse. The weather has changed and it is getting down below freezing at night. The workers are saying that there is no concern in leaving the apples outside because rumour has it that there is a certain amount of naturally occurring salt in the apple that will prevent it from freezing if left out unprotected. The boss finds out that they intend to not bring the apples inside. He has a meeting with the employees and says:

A) You have heard it said that leaving apples outside of the warehouse should be OK
B) But I say to you
1) whoever leaves apples out at night
E) unless placed in some kind of adequately insulated container
2) causes financial loss due to ruined product
3) and whosoever is found to encourage such will be held guilty of the same

A person naturally reads into Line E that it serves only as an example how the action can be done and the negative result will not occur.
E) unless placed in some kind of adequately insulated container, [‘for example’, ‘you catch my drift’, ‘you know what I mean’]
That is the natural and literal way of reading it by virtue of the fact that it is only an aside to begin with.
To demonstrate how that kind of disconnected clause is naturally taken only as an example in that particular sentence format, show the two parallels to someone who is not aware of this discussion (do not include what is in brackets about it being an example) and ask them:

In the parallel about yelling, if the gang member yells loudly at a person on the street to let them know their house is in on fire or if their child is getting raped, does that cause unnecessary anguish?

In the parallel about apples, if someone leaves rotten apples outside, does that mean they have caused financial loss?

That line of questioning is inappropriate to Matt 5:31,32 when the betrothal explanation is held because the sentence overall functions very differently because the exception clause functions very differently.
However, that line of questioning is appropriate to Matt 5:31,32 when the divorce for adultery explanation is held because of the very serious role the exception clause is assumed to be taking; providing partial allowance to do the same thing Line A is talking about.
 
A

AVoice

Guest
I discovered this revelation concerning the exception clause having been spoken exclusively with regard to the premarital cultural divorce that we see in Matt 1:18-24 around 1990.
This is an excerpt of one of my first documents on the topic:


With the apparent prohibition on divorce (Mark 10:2-12 and Luke 16:18) set alongside the exception of fornication (Matt. 5:32; 19:9) it is understandable how the exception of fornication could appear at first, and perhaps for a long time afterward to be a thoroughly confounding problem. The question may be asked: "Is there an exception or is there not?" However, a more appropriate question, which at first seems unworthy even to consider, holds the key to the understanding of this issue. It is as follows:

Is it possible that the apparently more easily understood teachings in Mark and Luke are to be accepted at face value without adding anything, and at the same time, some form of exception happens to exist which does not conflict with those straightforward prohibitive statements in Mark and Luke? In other words, could Jesus' apparent outright prohibition on divorcing the married wife stand unmovable while at the same time some form of exception happens to exist, which does not oppose that outright prohibition? Could there be found some largely unnoticed Biblical evidence that would shed some light on the subject so that we could see that an exception does exist but at the same time there is "no exception"? You can see now what I mean when I say it is a question that seems unworthy even to consider. Unfortunately for those who have not asked themselves that question and thereby have not discovered its potential, but have assumed and taught that Jesus meant adultery when he said fornication, the answer to that question happens to be a very loud and provable 'yes'.

Let me illustrate with a hypothetical situation. You are working, unloading large bags of grain by hand. A notice on the wall states, Whosoever Tears a Bag Must Pay the Cost of Contents. Suppose that as you bring a bag to your shoulder, it slips, and in an attempt to grab it, a large section of the bag rips off before it hits the floor. It would not seem possible that this could happen without your being found guilty. But there is a way, by virtue of a previously unknown factor whereby you would be judged as not violating the true intent of the notice. How could this be? The answer is very simple. You would not be found guilty if the bags were all double-walled and after tearing and hitting the floor, the grain was still very well contained within the remaining layer. The phrase "tears a bag" was expected to be understood to mean that if a bag tore, the contents would spill on the floor.

Let us say also that after tearing only the outer layer and hitting the floor, (the grain being yet very well contained), some of your fellow labourers are uncertain on whether or not you should still pay, since technically you did tear a bag. Therefore, the man in charge, in order to avoid such a misunderstanding, changes the notice so that it reads; Whosoever tears a bag, unless it is only the outer layer, must pay the cost of contents.

This hypothetical scenario does not pretend to cover all the aspects to be discussed about Matthew 5:32 and Matthew 19:9.
There are hypothetical statements that could be brought out which are grammatically similar in construction to Matt. 5:32 and 19:9. These show in a straightforward manner the effect of an exception clause inserted within such statements. They also show how certain kinds of exception clauses (such as those we find inserted in Matt. 5:32: 19:9) may apply to a closely associated aspect of the subject and not to that aspect which is being directly addressed. However, in this present scenario, the main purpose is to show how separate true statements made about a particular situation may seem to be totally contradictory and unquestionably irreconcilable, simply because an unknown duality exists pertaining to the situation.

The bags being double-layered was the unknown duality which in effect made it possible to tear a bag without tearing a bag. It was torn, but not after the intended meaning of the notice. The unknown duality concerning Matthew 5:32 and 19:9 lies in the fact that there were two kinds of wives; 1) the betrothed or espoused wife, and 2) the completely married wife. Therefore also, there were two kinds of divorce. While Jesus upheld the liberty practiced by the Jews to divorce their unmarried betrothed wives for their fornication (in which case the husband would divorce "his wife" before he married her), he prohibited the divorce of the completely married wife for whatever reason. We can see by this how it is possible to divorce without divorcing.
 
D

Dorcas

Guest
This is a simple statement. You are over complicating it.
First the background history is that Jews in the past would divorce their wife for whatever reason they chose.
How this applies to Christians: The only ground for a scriptural divorce is adultery. The innocent party would then be free to remarry. If a man divorces a wife without scriptural grounds, God still considers them to be married. If the wife remarries, she and her second husband will be held accountable for committing adultery.
 
May 3, 2013
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Allowed or not be the Lord Jesus, because He pointed out who we are, as adulterers. Isn´t it us who had to deal with those troubles alone? While His loving touch is not easily reached to be cured, when hurt, or to heal others, when we cheated on, lied or purposely hurt those we said we loved.

We will be judged for being unloyal and unsteady, but I guess He surely is more concerned for our wellbeing, our family bonds, than those transgressions pointed out as sins (which actually are).
 
May 3, 2013
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This is a simple statement. You are over complicating it.
First the background history is that Jews in the past would divorce their wife for whatever reason they chose.
How this applies to Christians: The only ground for a scriptural divorce is adultery. The innocent party would then be free to remarry. If a man divorces a wife without scriptural grounds, God still considers them to be married. If the wife remarries, she and her second husband will be held accountable for committing adultery.
Aren´t Christian appealing to the same "reasons" to be divorced?

They said:

No! He is not the one I liked to go my Church.
No! She´s to fat and old for me.
No! He is not a good provider.
No! She is not taking care of me, any longer.

You may name it...

PS

There´s no innocent party (except those children left).
 
A

AVoice

Guest
This is a simple statement. You are over complicating it.
First the background history is that Jews in the past would divorce their wife for whatever reason they chose.
How this applies to Christians: The only ground for a scriptural divorce is adultery. The innocent party would then be free to remarry. If a man divorces a wife without scriptural grounds, God still considers them to be married. If the wife remarries, she and her second husband will be held accountable for committing adultery.
According to Mark and Luke and Paul, there is no allowance to divorce OR remarry. You are the one making it complicated. Instead of accepting the very simply stated understanding in Mark, Luke, and by Paul, you are taking the two verses in Matt that refer to fornication as a grounds to divorce and are assuming that Mark and Luke and Paul cannot have meant what they plainly said. For example, if Jesus made adultery a grounds to divorce, then the completely separate author of Mark cannot have spoken the truth when he wrote:
[SUP]11 [/SUP]And he saith unto them, Whosoever shall put away his wife, and marry another, committeth adultery against her.

[SUP]12 [/SUP]And if a woman shall put away her husband, and be married to another, she committeth adultery.

A man who has an adulterous wife falls under the clearly identified category of "whosoever". If that man divorces his wife for adultery and marries another he commits adultery.
The modern pastors and teachers are leading the sheep astray.
And the man with an adulterous wife, if he divorces her for her adultery, he causes to to commit adultery afterwards as the result of that divorce. The same as the man who divorces his wife for smelly feet. He causes her to commit adultery afterward for the same reason. She no longer is living with her husband, she is vulnerable.

You make it sound like you have no problem with understanding Matt 5:31,32 and you assume Jesus certainly made adultery a grounds for adultery. What you do not understand is that when the exception of fornication is assumed to be allowing divorce for adultery the sentence becomes extremely complicated and creates serious contradiction, both against itself as well as against Matt 19:9. Not to mention against Mark Luke and Paul.

Matt 5:
[SUP]31 [/SUP]It hath been said, Whosoever shall put away his wife, let him give her a writing of divorcement:
[SUP]32 [/SUP]But I say unto you, That whosoever shall put away his wife, saving for the cause of fornication, causeth her to commit adultery: and whosoever shall marry her that is divorced committeth adultery.

To demonstrate the convolution created when fornication there is assumed to mean adultery, answer this question:
When assuming that fornication means adultery there in Matt 5:32, then what woman does the last clause pertain to? The wife divorced for adultery, the wife divorced for something not sexually related, or does it apply to both?
 
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