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(Mark 8:38 KJV) Whosoever therefore shall be ashamed of me and of my words in this adulterous and sinful generation; of him also shall the Son of man be ashamed, when he cometh in the glory of his Father with the holy angels.
Theophanies in the bible:
(2 Ki 6:14 KJV) Therefore sent he thither horses, and chariots, and a great host: and they came by night, and compassed the city about.
(2 Ki 6:15 KJV) And when the servant of the man of God was risen early, and gone forth, behold, an host compassed the city both with horses and chariots. And his servant said unto him, Alas, my master! how shall we do?
(2 Ki 6:16 KJV) And he answered, Fear not: for they that be with us are more than they that be with them.
(2 Ki 6:17 KJV) And Elisha prayed, and said, LORD, I pray thee, open his eyes, that he may see. And the LORD opened the eyes of the young man; and he saw: and, behold, the mountain was full of horses and chariots of fire round about Elisha.
(2 Ki 6:18 KJV) And when they came down to him, Elisha prayed unto the LORD, and said, Smite this people, I pray thee, with blindness. And he smote them with blindness according to the word of Elisha.
Now does anyone believe that the "horses and chariots of fire" were literal and seen with the physical eyes?
Is it not evident that they could only be seen by a vision? There were no physical horses, but we can be assured they were the horses and chariots of heaven.
John has similar visions of the white horses of Jesus as the Lord of hosts coming against 1st century AD Jerusalem:
(Rev 19:13 KJV) And he was clothed with a vesture dipped in blood: and his name is called The Word of God.
(Rev 19:14 KJV) And the armies which were in heaven followed him upon white horses, clothed in fine linen,white and clean.
So why would the literalists think that there is any difference between the vision beheld by Elisha's servant and the one given to John in the revelation?
Why would the woody literalist think the coming of Christ would be optically seen anymore than Elisha's servant optically saw the Lords army?
Theophanies in the bible:
(2 Ki 6:14 KJV) Therefore sent he thither horses, and chariots, and a great host: and they came by night, and compassed the city about.
(2 Ki 6:15 KJV) And when the servant of the man of God was risen early, and gone forth, behold, an host compassed the city both with horses and chariots. And his servant said unto him, Alas, my master! how shall we do?
(2 Ki 6:16 KJV) And he answered, Fear not: for they that be with us are more than they that be with them.
(2 Ki 6:17 KJV) And Elisha prayed, and said, LORD, I pray thee, open his eyes, that he may see. And the LORD opened the eyes of the young man; and he saw: and, behold, the mountain was full of horses and chariots of fire round about Elisha.
(2 Ki 6:18 KJV) And when they came down to him, Elisha prayed unto the LORD, and said, Smite this people, I pray thee, with blindness. And he smote them with blindness according to the word of Elisha.
Now does anyone believe that the "horses and chariots of fire" were literal and seen with the physical eyes?
Is it not evident that they could only be seen by a vision? There were no physical horses, but we can be assured they were the horses and chariots of heaven.
John has similar visions of the white horses of Jesus as the Lord of hosts coming against 1st century AD Jerusalem:
(Rev 19:13 KJV) And he was clothed with a vesture dipped in blood: and his name is called The Word of God.
(Rev 19:14 KJV) And the armies which were in heaven followed him upon white horses, clothed in fine linen,white and clean.
So why would the literalists think that there is any difference between the vision beheld by Elisha's servant and the one given to John in the revelation?
Why would the woody literalist think the coming of Christ would be optically seen anymore than Elisha's servant optically saw the Lords army?