J
Did the English and Reformation Bibles prior to the Authorized Version of 1611 ever attack Jesus' Deity?
Did these Bibles ever give the Lord Jesus Christ an origin like most modern versions do in Micah 5:2?
Did they ever attack the Blood Atonement?
Did they ever falsely claim that God can be deceived like the NASB does in Psalm 78:36?
Did these Bibles ever give the Lord Jesus Christ an origin like most modern versions do in Micah 5:2?
Did they ever attack the Blood Atonement?
Did they ever falsely claim that God can be deceived like the NASB does in Psalm 78:36?
Besides, you're the one posting videos about how it's a sin to not use the KJV. I think you should modify your message, because it would seem the Apostle Paul was in unrepetent sent, given that he wasn't using the KJV. Just sayin' man, fix your speel.