I've been thinking about John 3:16 recently, and I have a few thoughts (and perhaps questions) about it.
"For God so loved the world, that He gave His only begotten Son, that whoever believes in Him should not perish but have everlasting life".
First, I was raised with the belief that this verse is part of the conversation between Jesus and Nicodemus. In other words, Jesus said this to Nicodemus directly.
However, I've heard some say that this verse is part of John's own commentary on the exchange between Nicodemus and Jesus. That is, they say that the Holy Spirit inspired John to write it, but it wasn't necessarily Christ's spoken words to Nicodemus.
To be sure, I don't see this difference as a doctrinal issue. But it is something worth looking into.
Another point is that in the John's Gospel, Jesus always referred to God the Father as "Father", as opposed to "God". What I'm getting to is that, if Jesus said this verse directly to Nicodemus, wouldn't He have said "For My Father so loved the world..........."?
Third, some have disagreed as to the meaning of the phrase "For God so loved the world". Does it mean that "God loved the world so much" or "God loved the world in this way (or manner)"? The second interpretation would be in light of the preceding verses.
I welcome your thoughts and input on this. And no, I won't come "biting back" if anyone disputes what I've said. That's what a Christian discussion forum is for, right?
"For God so loved the world, that He gave His only begotten Son, that whoever believes in Him should not perish but have everlasting life".
First, I was raised with the belief that this verse is part of the conversation between Jesus and Nicodemus. In other words, Jesus said this to Nicodemus directly.
However, I've heard some say that this verse is part of John's own commentary on the exchange between Nicodemus and Jesus. That is, they say that the Holy Spirit inspired John to write it, but it wasn't necessarily Christ's spoken words to Nicodemus.
To be sure, I don't see this difference as a doctrinal issue. But it is something worth looking into.
Another point is that in the John's Gospel, Jesus always referred to God the Father as "Father", as opposed to "God". What I'm getting to is that, if Jesus said this verse directly to Nicodemus, wouldn't He have said "For My Father so loved the world..........."?
Third, some have disagreed as to the meaning of the phrase "For God so loved the world". Does it mean that "God loved the world so much" or "God loved the world in this way (or manner)"? The second interpretation would be in light of the preceding verses.
I welcome your thoughts and input on this. And no, I won't come "biting back" if anyone disputes what I've said. That's what a Christian discussion forum is for, right?