Greetings,
I have always believed in 'Original Sin' because that was what I have always been taught. But thinking about it has always caused a "twitch in my brain." Basically, it seems to me that if the doctrine of Original Sin is true, then men are not to be blamed for having a Sinful Nature. Now, it's true that all Actual Sins result from our Sin Nature; therefore if men cannot be blamed for Original Sin, they cannot be blamed for Actual Sin either.
The reality is that I cannot believe that God would be just to force us to be born with Original Sin. As well, if all men are born with this Sin Nature, it then becomes God's fault that we have been hurt by other people who were born sinners. It's then God's fault for allowing myself to be given up for adoption, because God caused my birthmother to be born a sinner.
Believing in Original Sin is not allowing me to see God as a just and loving God. The blame has got to lay upon us/me for our/my Sinful Nature, and not upon God for our sins.
Anyway, I found an excellent book online and I will post a short quote from the book (emphasis mine):
The Bible teaches that all men originate their own moral depravity. Gen. 6:12, Gen. 8:21, Deut. 32:5, Psalm 14:1-3, Rom. 3:23, Eccl. 7:29. The Bible teaches that men sin and corrupt themselves. In fact, early in mankind's history upon the earth men had become so corrupt that God sent a flood to destroy them.
I will destroy man whom I have created from the face of the earth. Gen. 6:7.
Observe that God was angry with "man whom I have created." Certainly he was not angry with them because of the nature with which he had created them. No, it was because they had corrupted themselves that God was angry with them.
The earth also was corrupt before God, and the earth was filled with violence. And God looked upon the earth and behold it was corrupt; for all flesh had corrupted his way upon the earth. Gen. 6:11, 12.
To corrupt means to make morally depraved. It means to pervert what is good and upright. It means to make unclean what was once clean. It means to spoil what was once good and unspoiled. The word corrupt always implies a former state that was unspoiled, clean, good, or upright. It is never used to speak of the original created nature of man. It speaks of what man has become because of spoiling or perverting the nature with which he was created.
Moral beings have never needed a sinful nature to make them sin. The first sin ever committed was committed by the devil. He did not have a sinful nature to make him sin. Then, a third of the angels fell. They did not have a sinful nature to make them sin. Then both Adam and Eve sinned. They did not have a sinful nature to make them sin. Then, why should it be thought necessary for men to be born with a sinful nature to account for their sins? The Bible does not teach that men must have a sinful nature in order to sin; it teaches that men sin in spite of a good nature:
Lo, this only have I found, that God hath made man upright; but they have sought out many inventions. Eccl. 7:29
Quest
I have always believed in 'Original Sin' because that was what I have always been taught. But thinking about it has always caused a "twitch in my brain." Basically, it seems to me that if the doctrine of Original Sin is true, then men are not to be blamed for having a Sinful Nature. Now, it's true that all Actual Sins result from our Sin Nature; therefore if men cannot be blamed for Original Sin, they cannot be blamed for Actual Sin either.
The reality is that I cannot believe that God would be just to force us to be born with Original Sin. As well, if all men are born with this Sin Nature, it then becomes God's fault that we have been hurt by other people who were born sinners. It's then God's fault for allowing myself to be given up for adoption, because God caused my birthmother to be born a sinner.
Believing in Original Sin is not allowing me to see God as a just and loving God. The blame has got to lay upon us/me for our/my Sinful Nature, and not upon God for our sins.
Anyway, I found an excellent book online and I will post a short quote from the book (emphasis mine):
The Bible teaches that all men originate their own moral depravity. Gen. 6:12, Gen. 8:21, Deut. 32:5, Psalm 14:1-3, Rom. 3:23, Eccl. 7:29. The Bible teaches that men sin and corrupt themselves. In fact, early in mankind's history upon the earth men had become so corrupt that God sent a flood to destroy them.
I will destroy man whom I have created from the face of the earth. Gen. 6:7.
Observe that God was angry with "man whom I have created." Certainly he was not angry with them because of the nature with which he had created them. No, it was because they had corrupted themselves that God was angry with them.
The earth also was corrupt before God, and the earth was filled with violence. And God looked upon the earth and behold it was corrupt; for all flesh had corrupted his way upon the earth. Gen. 6:11, 12.
To corrupt means to make morally depraved. It means to pervert what is good and upright. It means to make unclean what was once clean. It means to spoil what was once good and unspoiled. The word corrupt always implies a former state that was unspoiled, clean, good, or upright. It is never used to speak of the original created nature of man. It speaks of what man has become because of spoiling or perverting the nature with which he was created.
Moral beings have never needed a sinful nature to make them sin. The first sin ever committed was committed by the devil. He did not have a sinful nature to make him sin. Then, a third of the angels fell. They did not have a sinful nature to make them sin. Then both Adam and Eve sinned. They did not have a sinful nature to make them sin. Then, why should it be thought necessary for men to be born with a sinful nature to account for their sins? The Bible does not teach that men must have a sinful nature in order to sin; it teaches that men sin in spite of a good nature:
Lo, this only have I found, that God hath made man upright; but they have sought out many inventions. Eccl. 7:29
Quest