contradiction or not?

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Sep 4, 2012
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#21
Please disregard this comment in my prior post:

Of course, it could be the other way around; the LXX is right, and 27th was changed to 17th day by the Masoretes.
Reason? brainfart...
 
B

Bryancampbell

Guest
#22
Ask and ye shall receive:

  1. Zechariah 14:5 is grossly mistranslated in bibles that use the Masoretic Text version of this verse. The reason is because a Hebrew word in this verse can be pronounced two different ways, which results in two very different meanings. The original meaning was preserved in the LXX. Read about it here > Deciphering Zechariah 14:5 | An indepth analysis of Zechariah 14:5
  2. In the MT, Genesis 7:11 states that Noah’s ark rested on the 17th day ; yet the ark rested on the 27th day in the LXX. Based on the following reasoning, it appears that the MT is correct.
In the MT, the ark rested on the third day of the 7-day festival of Tabernacles, which is the 7th festival (or appointed time) of YHWH. The number 7 always signifies rest from labor. This seems very significant.

The MT states that the the ark rested in the 17th day (שבעה־עשר יום) of the month (Genesis 8:4). However, the LXX states that the ark rested on the 27th of the month (no day). The Hebrew word for 17 is spelled שבעה־עשר; and the Hebrew word for 27 is spelled שבעה־עשרים. Notice that the only difference between the Hebrew spelling of 27 and the Hebrew spelling of 17th day is one letter, the letter vav (ו) that is the middle letter of the Hebrew word for day (יום). Also notice that the word day is missing in the LXX. So it appears that the translators of the LXX misread 17th day as 27, and translated it as such.

Of course, it could be the other way around; the LXX is right, and 27th was changed to 17th day by the Masoretes.​
I'm still trying to find that verse (Gen 8:4) in the LXX, because you're giving me Hebrew when the LXX was in Greek. I might be forgetting something in what you said, so I'm lost. Also the fact I'm reading that verse as the same thing, of what the LXX is saying. Don't know why you also quoted 7:11 when seventeenth day is still there? I think you confused yourself, or I don't understand :confused:
 
B

Bryancampbell

Guest
#24
Wanted to add, you said, in Hebrew 27 and 17 are different, that's why I'm confused on why you used Hebrew for 27 if the LXX said 27. The difference is, I don't know lol
 
B

Bryancampbell

Guest
#25
Okay my friend, your right about 27 being in the LXX. I was looking through the LXX and It states that God finished His works on the sixth day but rested on the seventh, while the masoretic states that he finished and rested on the seventh. What do you think of that?
 
Sep 4, 2012
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#26
I'm still trying to find that verse (Gen 8:4) in the LXX, because you're giving me Hebrew when the LXX was in Greek. I might be forgetting something in what you said, so I'm lost. Also the fact I'm reading that verse as the same thing, of what the LXX is saying. Don't know why you also quoted 7:11 when seventeenth day is still there? I think you confused yourself, or I don't understand :confused:
In some LXX translations 8:4 is included in 8:3. In retrospect, perhaps I should have just limited this to 7:11.

The MT has 17th day in both 8:4 and 7:11; the word day exists in the Hebrew. The LXX has just 27th in both verses; the word day is not in the Greek.

The only difference between the Hebrew spellings of 17th day and 27 is one letter; the word 27 is missing one letter, which is basically just a straight vertical line. It appears to me that the translators of the LXX misread 17th day in the Hebrew text as 27, and translated it that way.
 
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Sep 4, 2012
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#27
Okay my friend, your right about 27 being in the LXX. I was looking through the LXX and It states that God finished His works on the sixth day but rested on the seventh, while the masoretic states that he finished and rested on the seventh. What do you think of that?
Interesting... hmmmm...
 
B

Bryancampbell

Guest
#28
In some LXX translations 8:4 is included in 8:3. In retrospect, perhaps I should have just limited this to 7:11.

The MT has 17th day in both 8:4 and 7:11; the word day exists in the Hebrew. The LXX has just 27th in both verses; the word day is not in the Greek.

The only difference between the Hebrew spellings of 17th day and 27 is one letter; the word 27 is missing one letter, which is basically just a straight vertical line. It appears to me that the translators of the LXX misread 17th day in the Hebrew text as 27, and translated it that way.
I get it now, it's that extra letter.
 
Sep 4, 2012
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#29
Okay my friend, your right about 27 being in the LXX. I was looking through the LXX and It states that God finished His works on the sixth day but rested on the seventh, while the masoretic states that he finished and rested on the seventh. What do you think of that?
Technically, the LXX is right. GOD finished his work on the 6th day, and did no work on the 7th day. If you do no work on a certain day, you can't finish something you were working on the day before. If you ended work the day before, there's nothing left to do.

This apparently is the first variant between the LXX and MT in the bible.
 
Feb 17, 2010
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#30
Bryan. The answer is not in the period but in the one that offers David these options. The answer is in the NEW TESTAMENT.
Also in the Old but Jesus said it best when He said this....

John 8:44... Ye are of your father the devil, and the lusts of your father ye will do. He was a murderer from the beginning, and abode not in the truth, because there is no truth in him. When he speaketh a lie, he speaketh of his own: for he is a liar, and the father of it.

Is this not just BEAUTIFUL?

If you want to see a lot of head off chickens run around, you have to cut the heads off... and people say.. OH HOW GRUSOME, what about SEVENTY THOUSAND MEN DIED for this sin David committed?

What does God ay about the sin of the father and the sin of the son? Will I bear my fathers sin? AM I MY FATHER JESUS? is he mine? Come on think a bit with those woderful brains God gave you..... Will GOD (the LORD) bring femine over the land where the KING sinned, AFTER the anger of the Lord was kindled against ISRAEL, and he moved David against them to say.... GO NUMBER ISRAEL AND JUDAH.... And then come again with three options to settle the score?


How will God JUSTIFY that?

Then David's heart SMOTE him for counting the people. Then David says... LORD I HAVE SINNED... How can it be sin if the LORD told him to do it? Oh the mysteries of the Bible.... Who was David's LORD that would later make him realize he sinned for obeying the LORD? How can obedience to a HOLY God be sin? Again who was DAVID'S LORD that told Him to sin (count the nation) Who else but SATAN, THE LORD OF DAVID.....


Here is another one... Who was David's Lord when he wanted Bathsheba?
 
B

Bryancampbell

Guest
#31
Technically, the LXX is right. GOD finished his work on the 6th day, and did no work on the 7th day. If you do no work on a certain day, you can't finish something you were working on the day before. If you ended work the day before, there's nothing left to do.

This apparently is the first variant between the LXX and MT in the bible.
If I finished reading a book yesterday and rested today, I most likely stopped reading after it was finished on that same day lol. In the bible God seemed to be creating from day to 'then' the next day, as a continuous thing up until the seventh day He finished and rested, like a man who finishes cutting his grass and takes a rest.

I guess it's how you perceive it lol. I still follow the MT as correct. :)
 
B

Bryancampbell

Guest
#32
Cobus, brother I know the context of the story, but how would one put it together if someone (an unbeliever) tried to test you with this? That's what I'm referring to.
 
Aug 5, 2013
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#33
Here's a possible answer, and it seems fair to me. It only argues for a corresponding interpretation, though... if it were important what Gad's literal words were, the bible would be extremely unhelpful on that point because it has two different statements.
 
B

Bryancampbell

Guest
#34
Lol it's good to follow the OP, best not to look it up, but figure it out...
 
M

Mammachickadee

Guest
#35
I would love to do a study on this with you guys, I believe I figured it out. Not that I'm any smarter, but I want to discuss with you guys about this, to see what you guys figure out about this. Just in case someone comes up to you and asks about it.

So I was finishing the 2 book of Samuel and I was screening through some commentary, and I came across a "contradiction", not really, or is it?? Some of you might already know, or others will look it up, but I challenge you to figure it on your own with the Spirit.

David sinned against God by doing a census on the people of Israel out of boosting, and the Lord through the prophet Gad, told David of what punishment was to be accept because of it. Now both the book of Samuel and Chronicle has this exact account of this scene. But they both say something different. Can you figure it out why?

2 Samuel 24:13 NASB

So Gad came to David and told him, and said to him, "Shall seven years of famine come to you in your land? Or will you flee three months before your foes while they pursue you? Or shall there be three days' pestilence in your land? Now consider and see what answer I shall return to Him who sent me."

1 Chronicles 21:11-12 NASB

So Gad came to David and said to him, "Thus says the Lord , 'Take for yourself either three years of famine, or three months to be swept away before your foes, while the sword of your enemies overtakes you, or else three days of the sword of the Lord, even pestilence in the land, and the angel of the Lord destroying throughout all the territory of Israel.' Now, therefore, consider what answer I shall return to Him who sent me."

By the way, the NASB, KJV, and some others only have this. Reason is because some latest versions used the Septuagint (Greek OT) in translation, instead of Masoretic (Hebrew OT) in translation. (Though the Greek is said to be older)

So in terms, I'm talking about the bible that have this version of the text, to see if we have found a conclusion? Is it a miscopy? Is it a contradiction? Or a wait a minute? Lol

I really want this to be fun for all of us, please respect the OP and what it seeks, as a Christian's fruits show.
Love the objectivity with which the discussion is introduced.
 
B

Bryancampbell

Guest
#36
Praise the Lord! :)
 

Nick01

Senior Member
Jul 15, 2013
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#37
I don't have a huge problem in potentially saying the Masoretic text errs in terms of saying seven years instead of three, but given how accurate and well preserved the Masoretic text is in many other areas (particularly compared to the Dead Sea Scrolls), we can be entitled to give it a little benefit of a doubt here.

I've heard it offered previously that 2 Samuel 21 refers to the land already being subjected to 3 years of famine because of Saul. Chapter 24 is the start of the census, which takes the better part of the year, then after that Gad warns David about the famine. In other words, perhaps what is happening is that 2 Samuel, that references the earlier famine, totals them all up in Gad's warning to 7, whereas Chronicles, which does not record this earlier famine, simply gives the number as 3, which is the number of years of famine if one starts counting from Gad's warning. I think this is a reasonable explanation.

Of course, what this still means is that either a) the writer of Samuel changed the original number (3) given by Gad to seven in order to truthfully represent the number of years of continuous famine or b) the writer of Chronicles changed the number from seven to 3 because to say seven years without referencing the earlier famine would have given the untruthful impression that Israel would have been subjected to seven years of famine from Gad's warning. Either way, I think it can be argued that whichever is the original and whichever is the change, the change was made to more truthfully represent the actual situation in the context of the book in question.

And of course, regardless, it seems likely that if the Masoretic text number is accurate, the LXX changed the number back because of a perceived mistake that may or may not have any textual basis. IMO, I think it is perfectly possible that the Masoretic text had a more authentic tradition, and the LXX changed the number because they saw what they thought was an error, not because of any other more authoritative textual tradition to which the translators had access.
 
Apr 6, 2012
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#38
2 Samuel 24:13 says seven years of famine, 1 Chronicles 21:12 says three. (The Greek Septuagint reads “three” in the Samuel account.) One proposed explanation is that the seven years referred to at Second Samuel would, in part, be an extension of the three years of famine that came because of the sin of Saul and his house against the Gibeonites. (2Sa 21:1, 2) The current year (the registration took 9 months and 20 days [2Sa 24:8]) would be the fourth, and three years to come would make seven. Although the difference may have been due to a copyist’s error, it may be said again that a full knowledge of all the facts and circumstances should be had before one reaches such a conclusion.
 
Feb 17, 2010
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#39
Cobus, brother I know the context of the story, but how would one put it together if someone (an unbeliever) tried to test you with this? That's what I'm referring to.
Bryan who told David to count... SATAN DID... in Both verses it says Satan.... Satan is Satan, and he is the WRATH (anger) OF THE LORD. Satan is the ANGER of the LORD. I hope you know this....

Look who told David in BOTH verses... Time you know who Satan is... HE IS THE WRATH or ANGER OF THE LORD.

And the ANGER OF THE LORD.... And SATAN..... Same one! It was not the LORD that told David, it was the ANGER of the Lord that was kindled against the nation.... Satan is the anger of the Lord...


Go check it out in Genesis 4, where God told Cain.... Sin leieth at the door.... It makes it clear, either God in his LOVE is kindled to a person, and then there is GOOD or the ANGER of God is kindled to a person and then there is BAD...

God CANNOT sin, and He will NEVER want any person to sin.... David sinned by counting... God CANNOT TEMPT A MAN TO SIN... James says God cannot be tempted neither tempeth He no man.... So it was NEVER the Lord that told David, Both verses says it was SATAN.
 
Nov 30, 2012
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#40
Satan is a liar, a hater, and a deceiver. He is in no way a servant or part of the Lord. He is a rebel and a usurper of the Throne of Earth.