Crusaders?

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Cup-of-Ruin

Guest
In regard to the tangent we are on now related to the Jewish diaspora providing the foundation for English/Anglo-Saxon culture
Jewish Dispora was after the sacking of Jerusalem 70 AD, Israel went into Assyrian Captivity 750 BC, Israelite Dispora out of Assyria 609 BC.
 
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jcspartan

Guest
Were the crusades justified? Why or why not?..... speak your mind.
I had turned the computer off and was headed to bed when I felt convicted. Grey you asked a good question and within the context of discussion on the crusades we were looking at Christian ethics in the modern world as well as in the past. Now, your thread has been divderted from your question. For my part in that I respectfully apologize.
 
Jan 8, 2009
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Wikipedia is a popular opinion site and links page, no need to post any wikipedia as a reference because it is not, I wont read it anyway.
Everything you say is your own opinion, although it isn't popular :p, now the wikipedia article links to the science which disproves your view.
 
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greatkraw

Guest
Long before Jacob/Israel, your reading Genesis 10:21-31 the decendents of Shem through Eber and they were called "Gentiles"! This is confirmed in many quality historical sources, Gentiles are Shemites always have been they are descended from Shem-Eber, the Greeks like the Romans and Britons, Celts are all Shemites, like Jacob/Israel was also descended from Shem and Eber and Abraham, just like the Lord Himself who came from "Galilee of the Gentiles" Matthew 4:15....The Galatians were Celtic that is correct, they were Shemites, gentiles and came through the line of Jacob/Israel, they made their way out of Assyrian Captivity crossing the Caucuses Mountains via 'Israel Pass' to the Black Sea and then into Europe.
Cup, you remind me of my Dad.

He would never let the truth get in the way of a good story.
 
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Cup-of-Ruin

Guest
Cup, you remind me of my Dad.

He would never let the truth get in the way of a good story.
It is right there in Genesis 10. Would you like it Hebrew, Greek, English or Latin?
 
C

Cup-of-Ruin

Guest
Everything you say is your own opinion, although it isn't popular :p, now the wikipedia article links to the science which disproves your view.
Well I don't think I will be winning any popularity contests any time soon, lol.
 
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greatkraw

Guest
Cup,

Actually, the Table of Nations is one of my areas of expertise.

Along with Psalm 37.

Want me to tell you about the 4 Matriarchs and which races are descended from which women?
 
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Peacefulcrusader

Guest
Long before Jacob/Israel, your reading Genesis 10:21-31 the decendents of Shem through Eber and they were called "Gentiles"! This is confirmed in many quality historical sources, Gentiles are Shemites always have been they are descended from Shem-Eber, the Greeks like the Romans and Britons, Celts are all Shemites, like Jacob/Israel was also descended from Shem and Eber and Abraham, just like the Lord Himself who came from "Galilee of the Gentiles" Matthew 4:15....The Galatians were Celtic that is correct, they were Shemites, gentiles and came through the line of Jacob/Israel, they made their way out of Assyrian Captivity crossing the Caucuses Mountains via 'Israel Pass' to the Black Sea and then into Europe.
Hi Cup. I'll have to pick up Biblical references to turn back some of your theories.

1) It is possible that "Gentiles" are the descendants of Shem through Eber. But these do not include the peoples you mention, like the Greeks etc. You are wrong here.

2) Who are the Greeks according to the Bible? Genesis 10:2: "The sons of Japheth:
Gomer, Magog, Madai, Javan, Tubal, Meshech and Tiras."
Greece is here Javan. How can we know this? Because the Prophet Daniel speaks of them too:

8:21: "And the young he-goat, the hairy one, [is] the king of Javan; and the great horn that [is] between its eyes is the first king;"
11:2: and, now, truth I declare to thee, Lo, yet three kings are standing for Persia, and the fourth doth become far richer than all, and according to his strength by his riches he stirreth up the whole, with the kingdom of Javan.

And even Zechariah speaks of Javan: "For I have trodden for Me Judah, A bow I have filled [with] Ephraim, And I have stirred up thy sons, O Zion, Against thy sons, O Javan, And I have set thee as the sword of a hero".
If you check these passages in most Bibles the translation of "Javan" is "Greece".

Example, New King James says: Daniel 8:21: "And the male goat is the kingdom of Greece. The large horn that is between its eyes is the first king" (you can check other Bibles and other passages noted above, and find the same facts).

And because of this, the Greeks can't be descendants of Shem, since Japhet was the brother of Shem (and the father of Javan).


This point is strengthened by the fact that Madai, the brother of Javan, is identified as Persia. Yet, Persia is mixed of two peoples; the Japhetite Madai (in European: Media), and the Shemite Elam. Elam was the oldest of the Shemite brothers (Gen 10). The other Shemites are: Assur (Assyria-> geographically Iraq), Lud (Lydians, of modern Anatalia where the Turkish state now lies), and Aram, a common name for Syria.

And of course, the third brother among these five sons of Shem, was Arpaxad, the forefather of Eber, Abraham and Jesus himself - in addition to the Ishmaelites (-> Arabs).


Your claim that the Greeks are Shemites has been refuted by the Bible itself. The claim that Romans, Britons and Celts should be is highly doubtable, although we can't know much about the ancient history of at least Celts and Britons. Concerning England as such, peoples there have been mixed over and over again for millennias, first the Picts, then the Celts, then the Romans, then the Angles and Saxons, then the Vikings/Norse, then the Norman-French etc.

So the question may indeed be: how can "Britons" be identified? Commonly they are noted as the mix between native Celts-Picts and Romans during the time when the Roman Empire occupied Britian. "King" Arthur (ca 4-500 AD) was supposedly a Briton.

A common theory about the population processes of Europe is that the oldest peoples were the Basques (southwest) and the Picts (northwest). Then Celts, Romans, Huns, Germans, Slavs, Turks, Mongols etc. came from the east to supplant and drive away the group arriving before them (such as pressuring the Celts out of Germany and Gaul, eventually only to Ireland itself). It is possible that some of these were somehow related to the lost tribes of Israel, but we can't know for sure.


Well, anyway, the Bible speaks against your identification of the Greeks as Shemites... :)
 
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Peacefulcrusader

Guest
There is no prayer for those who reject the word made flesh, there are no prayers for those who do not believe, there are no prayers for those who do not confess that Jesus Christ is Lord, for thos the do not confess are as John says antichrists, there are no prayers for antichrists. If one prays to God for the salvation of those that do not confess that He is Lord, that that is registered as a sin on your part, it is a sin against the holy spirit. Christ says "Unless ye repent ye shall all likewise perish", that is a statement of fact, that is no a plea, He is not asking, He is telling, that's an order.

How should we pray Lord?

Jesus says;

"Our Father which art in heaven, Hallowed by Thy Name, Thy Kingdom come, Thy will be done, on earth as it is in hevean, give us this day our daily bread, and forgive us our debts as we forive our debtors, and lead us not into temptation but deliver us from evil, For Thine is the Kingdom, the power and the glory forever and ever."

Now that is a prayer, Amen.
Cup, you have still not backed up these claims.

And The Apostle Peter says:

2 Pet 3:9: "The Lord is not slack concerning His promise, as some count slackness, but is longsuffering toward us, not willing that any should perish but that all should come to repentance."

According to Peter the Lord's will is that people should come to repentance. And in the Lord's prayer we pray that "Thy will be done". So when we pray "Thy will be done", we pray that people will come to repentance, since that is is the Lord's will.

Then how can you accuse Christians who pray for this to sin against the Holy Spririt?
 
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Peacefulcrusader

Guest
To me this justifies police and the military as, in Roman times, the police force was the military. Annecdotally Christ did not condemn the centurion in Matt 8:6-13. Jesus actually praised the centurions faith and did not mention the need for the centurion to go sin no more as Jesus did at other time

The separate responsibility of the state verses the responsibility of the individual has profound implications for how a nation defends itself. Had the crusades been organized as a state function and not as a theocratic edict I would be more comfortable with what took place. If that was the case Byzantium would not have been invaded by the crusaders. As it was the Church mandated it (The German King was excomminicated for not taking part in a crusade or supporting one) and special dispensation was given to kill in the name of Jesus. Then to add insult to injury, several of the crusaders like the Normans used the situation to expand their own economic power.
Hi Spartan, you have good points here.

Many of the crusades were probably based on theocratic edicts, rather than by the state(s). Still, it's difficult to know everything about this completely. Even defensive wars against the Ottomans were sometimes called "crusades", and these wars were much more states (well, small kingdoms and realms) defending themselves than expeditions overseas to fight for the Pope. And one of the reasons for why the crusaed were ordered was the plea from the Byzantines to help them against the Muslim Turks (well, the Pope didn't care much about that, but...) Additionally, the Byzantine and Christian resistance to the initial Arab and Muslim invasions of Christian Levant, Africa and Europe were definetely state organized defense. In short, the crusades consisted of many different "interpretations" and kinds of warfare.
 
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jcspartan

Guest
Were the crusades justified? Why or why not?..... speak your mind.
Grey when you asked your question were you thinking about the crusades as they apply to the Holy Land or in the broader since? Not knowing what you have gone over in school (crusades were not covered in public school for me) and what you have read on your own.

For example the Northern Crusades did help protect Christian kingdoms like Hungary but, there was a question of who the Teutonic Order served the Pope or the Kingdom they protected?

The real telling point in the Northern Crusades is the change from defending to attacking Orthodox kingdoms in an attempt to take over in the name of the Roman Catholic Church.

So, even if the crusades were justifiable in some since can we justify how they were carried out in the broad since that they were executed?

Also, what is the difference between the Crusades and the military actions taken by Christians during the Reformation and Counter-Reformation?
 
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jcspartan

Guest
Hi Spartan, you have good points here.

Many of the crusades were probably based on theocratic edicts, rather than by the state(s). Still, it's difficult to know everything about this completely. Even defensive wars against the Ottomans were sometimes called "crusades", and these wars were much more states (well, small kingdoms and realms) defending themselves than expeditions overseas to fight for the Pope. And one of the reasons for why the crusaed were ordered was the plea from the Byzantines to help them against the Muslim Turks (well, the Pope didn't care much about that, but...) Additionally, the Byzantine and Christian resistance to the initial Arab and Muslim invasions of Christian Levant, Africa and Europe were definetely state organized defense. In short, the crusades consisted of many different "interpretations" and kinds of warfare.
I think those were perfectly justifieable. Those small kingdoms or merchant city states and the Byzantine Empire were in danger of being taken over. That is justification enough without adding dispensations for killing.

But one of the things I am trying to keep in perspective is my modern understanding of separation of church and state. I am not sure 11th century Europe saw that as an issue to consider. The kings and pope argued over who should have power but secular and theocratic authority was something both sides sought to aquire. So could they have separated a call to arms from theocratic perspective?

I am still working through that so I don't know.
 
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Peacefulcrusader

Guest
For example the Northern Crusades did help protect Christian kingdoms like Hungary but, there was a question of who the Teutonic Order served the Pope or the Kingdom they protected?

The real telling point in the Northern Crusades is the change from defending to attacking Orthodox kingdoms in an attempt to take over in the name of the Roman Catholic Church.
You touch upon some interesting points here Spartan.

Concerning the Teutonic Order and similar crusaders in the far northeast of Europe. These "crusades" were, as I see it, the worst of all. They had more or less one goal: to forceconvert Pagans to Roman Catholic Christianity. The Baltic and Ugric peoples of these areas were the last to "convert" to Christianity in Europe (ca 12-1400 AD). The Order also fought in defense of Hungary etc. that's right.

There were many "orders" around in the late Middle Ages, many of them fighthing defensive "crusades" in the Balcans, trying to stop the Ottoman Empire etc. In these instances Roman Catholics helped Orthodox Christians against the Muslim invaders, such as in the Battle of Varna (Ottoman victory).

Which examples do you think of when saying that "Northern Crusades" attacked Orthodox kingdoms in the name of the RCC?
 
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jcspartan

Guest
The Teutonic attacks on Poland and Lithuania. In fairness, I don't know if the Pope sanctioned the attacks on Poland or the order just did it but, in the end, I think the loss to Poland and Lithuania led to the collapse of the Teutonic Order. Converting to Lutheran beliefs and forming the first protestant state didn't help either
 
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jcspartan

Guest
Sorry forgot the quote:

Peaceful_Crusader
"Which examples do you think of when saying that "Northern Crusades" attacked Orthodox kingdoms in the name of the RCC?"


The Teutonic attacks on Poland and Lithuania. In fairness, I don't know if the Pope sanctioned the attacks on Poland or the order just did it but, in the end, I think the loss to Poland and Lithuania led to the collapse of the Teutonic Order. Converting to Lutheran beliefs and forming the first protestant state didn't help either
 
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Peacefulcrusader

Guest
Sorry forgot the quote:

Peaceful_Crusader
"Which examples do you think of when saying that "Northern Crusades" attacked Orthodox kingdoms in the name of the RCC?"


The Teutonic attacks on Poland and Lithuania. In fairness, I don't know if the Pope sanctioned the attacks on Poland or the order just did it but, in the end, I think the loss to Poland and Lithuania led to the collapse of the Teutonic Order. Converting to Lutheran beliefs and forming the first protestant state didn't help either
Hi Spartan. As far as I know, Poland and Lithuania were not Orthodox countries, but Catholic... It's true that especially Lithuania had many Orthodox subjects - but the rulers were Catholic. The Teutonic attacks were initially carried out to forceconvert the Pagan peoples to Catholisism, not from Orthodoxy to Catholisism. It's true that the Teutonic Order fought against Poland-Lithuania later too, but that was more about political expansion.
 
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Cup-of-Ruin

Guest
Cup, you have still not backed up these claims.

And The Apostle Peter says:

2 Pet 3:9: "The Lord is not slack concerning His promise, as some count slackness, but is longsuffering toward us, not willing that any should perish but that all should come to repentance."

According to Peter the Lord's will is that people should come to repentance. And in the Lord's prayer we pray that "Thy will be done". So when we pray "Thy will be done", we pray that people will come to repentance, since that is is the Lord's will.

Then how can you accuse Christians who pray for this to sin against the Holy Spririt?
And who was His promise to? Who are the heirs to the promise? God will keep His promise to them that He made the promise to and He wills that none of them who He gave the promise to perish but they who He made the promise to come to repentennce, Peter says He is longsuffering to us who is us? Well the letter is addressed to Christians "through the knowledge of Him that has CALLED US to glory and virtue" "Whereby are given US EXCEEDING GREAT AND PRECIOUS PROMISES; that by these ye might be partakers of the divine nature, having ESCAPED THE CORRUPTION THAT IS IN THE WORLD THROUGH LUST"

"where fore the rather brethren give dilligence to make your calling and election sure"

2:1

"But there were false prophets also among the people even as there shall be false teachers among you, who shall privily bring ****able heresies, even denying the Lord that bought them, AND BRING SWIFT DESTRUCTION UPON THEMSELVES, And many shall follow their pernicious ways; by reason of whom the way of truth shall be spoken evil of."

"For if God spared not the angels that sinned BUT CAST THEM DOWN TO HELL and delivered them into chains of darkness to be reserved unto Judgement, And spared not the old world, etc, etc."

"THE LORD KNOWETH HOW TO DELIVER THE GODLY OUT OF TEMPTATIONS AND RESERVE THE UNJUST UNTO THE DAY OF JUDGEMENT TO BE PUNISHED."

"But these as natural brute beasts MADE TO BE TAKEN AND DESTROYED, speak evil of things THAT THEY DO NOT UNDERSTAND, AND SHALL UTTERLY PERISH And shall receive the award of UNRIGHTEOUSNESS." etc etc.

Second Peter is perhaps one of the most ****ing accounts written on what will happen to those that have gone against Him, He does not wish that they come to repentence because Peter addresses the elect Christians and Peter tell them the elect that they should repent, Peter is clearly and I quote him adressing the "Brethren" the "beloved" those with "knowledge of God" "elected unto glory"!!!

Peter totally ****s all but saved Christians throughtout Epistle and finishes with

"Ye therefore beloved seeing ye know these things before, BEWARE lest ye also being led away with THE ERROR OF THE WICKED, FALL FROM YOUR OWN STEADFASTNESS, But grow in grace, AND IN KNOWLEDGE of our Lord and Saviour Jesus Christ, To Him be glory both now and for ever. Amen."

So Peter totally ****s everything you just said 'Peacefulcrusader' and Peter writes that the beloved the elect of God come to repentence lest they be lead away into the error of the wicked and fall.

 
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Peacefulcrusader

Guest
Cup of Ruin. You need to calm yourself down. Your arguments are NOT convincing. But since you ignore the aspects I've told you so far, I'll give yet another verse:

1 Timothy 2:1-4:
"1I urge, then, first of all, that requests, prayers, intercession and thanksgiving be made for everyone— 2for kings and all those in authority, that we may live peaceful and quiet lives in all godliness and holiness. 3This is good, and pleases God our Savior, 4who wants all men to be saved and to come to a knowledge of the truth."

So, Cup of Ruin. Can you please stop spreading your false teachings on the topic? Thank you.
 
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Cup-of-Ruin

Guest
Cup of Ruin. You need to calm yourself down. Your arguments are NOT convincing.
It's the Apostle Peter that you are arguing against not me, i'm just quoting Peter. In regards to your comments on the Shemites you may want to post that on my "Who are the Gentiles" thread and I will answer it there.

1 Timothy 2:1-4:
"1I urge, then, first of all, that requests, prayers, intercession and thanksgiving be made for everyone2for kings and all those in authority, that we may live peaceful and quiet lives in all godliness and holiness. 3This is good, and pleases God our Savior, 4who wants all men to be saved and to come to a knowledge of the truth."

So, Cup of Ruin. Can you please stop spreading your false teachings on the topic? Thank you.
Well can I also ask you to not teach that Christians should pray for antichrists, and to stop changing the word of God.

1 Timothy 2:1-4

"This is good, and pleases God our Saviour; Who will have all men to be saved, and come to unto the knowledge of God."

Is this universal salvation? No God will say "depart from Me I never knew you", all men cannot be saved as it is written antichrists will be ****ed to Hell. So all men that come to knowledge of God have done so because of the will of God....It's quite simple.
 
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jcspartan

Guest
Hi Spartan. As far as I know, Poland and Lithuania were not Orthodox countries, but Catholic... It's true that especially Lithuania had many Orthodox subjects - but the rulers were Catholic. The Teutonic attacks were initially carried out to forceconvert the Pagan peoples to Catholisism, not from Orthodoxy to Catholisism. It's true that the Teutonic Order fought against Poland-Lithuania later too, but that was more about political expansion.
Thanks for setting the record straight on Poland and Lithuania.

The fact that they were Catholic makes it more troubling. Although I don't agree with the idea of attacking Orthodox churches on the grounds of doctrinal differences there is at least the excuse of heresy that can be used. By attacking Catholics there is not even an excuse. The Teutonic Order was set up to protect the Holy Land as an off shoot of the Hospitlars. They end up being an expansionist arm of Prussia. The fact that Poland and Lithuania were Catholic makes this even more obvious.
 
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