ok but why does evil have to be included in free will? could there be a free will in a world where no evil exists?
How would one be able to "make" the virtuous choice without the option to choose evil?
Think carefully about that question.
There can be no righteousness apart from choice. If there is no choice then there is no "choosing right," in its place would be an automated response. An automated response is simply not virtue because virtue by necessity must include an act of the will.
Is a robot programmed to be friendly, open doors and check your blood pressure virtuous? Or is a human being who chooses to be friendly and helpful virtuous?
God created Adam with the capacity to choose to work good or evil. Adam's sin involved the choice of evil, even though Adam was innocent within the context of being ignorant to actually what evil was. Nevertheless he was fully responsible for choosing to act in discordance to the will of God.
Likewise Cain and Abel had the same capacity to choose that Adam possessed. The main difference with Cain and Abel is that they had been exposed to sin in the world and thus likely did not possess the innocence of Adam (except when they were children).
Neither Cain or Abel were "spiritually fallen" when they were born. They were still wonderfully made. Abel chose to do right whilst Cain chose to do wrong.
The Bible does not teach that the sin of Adam corrupted the nature of his descendents. That teaching basically claims that Adam sinned by choice but all his descendents sin by necessity. Is the condemnation of the sinner just if they sin by necessity?
This subtle twist in the nature of man redefines "sin" from being a crime to being a malady.
If our sin is due to an inborn malady then there is no possible way that we can accept full responsibility. We must perceive ourselves as the victims of circumstance. This underlying premise then necessitates that repentance be the "confession of a malady" rather than involving the "forsaking of crime."
Paul wrote this...
2Co 7:10 For
godly sorrow worketh repentance to salvation not to be repented of: but the sorrow of the world worketh death.
2Co 7:11 For behold this selfsame thing, that ye sorrowed after a godly sort, what carefulness it wrought in you, yea, what clearing of yourselves, yea, what indignation, yea, what fear, yea, what vehement desire, yea, what zeal, yea, what revenge! In all things ye have approved yourselves to be clear in this matter.
Godly sorrow works a repentance which is not to be regretted.
Think about godly sorrow for a minute. Would you think the difference between believing "sin is a malady" as opposed to believing "sin is a crime" would have any effect on godly sorrow?
If godly sorrow produces a clearing (purity in regards to a crime) due to the carefulness, zeal, fear, revenge, indignation and vehement desire it produces would such a result differ within the context of sin being a result of an act of the will as opposed to an act of a birth nature?
One cannot forsake a birth nature but one can forsake crime.
See the difference?
Think about it.
