Actually, the grammar is not convoluted, so much as it is just wrong! Hebrew comes a bit closer to English, although the verbs are totally different, and Hebrew is a verbal language. Nouns count for little in Hebrew, and they are generally cognates of the verbs.
Greek uses cases for the noun structure. Thus, the nominative case is the subject in a sentence, even though it can be thrown to the very back of the sentence. For example, the word "the" which has one word for all cases and both singular and plural in English, has 17 different words in 24 different possible positions in the Greek. This makes the language much more readable, because you know exactly what the writer is trying to say, no guessing ever necessary. (The verb structure is also much more complex, adding to the subtleties of the text.)
Unfortunately, KJV sometimes makes major mistakes, including what can result in bad theology, sometimes with only one letter being off in the Greek.
In addition, most prepositions have different meanings depending upon the case. (ie. nominative, genitive, dative or accusative) In Greek, Mark 1:5 says the following in Greek.
"καὶ ἐξεπορεύετο πρὸς αὐτὸν πᾶσα ἡ Ἰουδαία χώρα καὶ οἱ Ἱεροσολυμῖται πάντες, καὶ ἐβαπτίζοντο ὑπ’ αὐτοῦ ἐν τῷ Ἰορδάνῃ ποταμῷ ἐξομολογούμενοι τὰς ἁμαρτίας αὐτῶν." Mark 1:5 Greek
"And there went out unto him all the land of Judaea, and they of Jerusalem, and were all baptized of him in the river of Jordan, confessing their sins." Mark 1:5 KJV
The first phrase in italics also uses a preposition πρὸς αὐτὸν (pros auton) in the accusative case, which are best translated "to, towards, with" as "unto" is not a word used by anyone today other than KJV advocates. It is quite simply an archaic word.
This bolded phrase ὑπ’ αὐτοῦ (hu' autou) in the Greek, hu' is the preposition ὑπὸ, which in the genitive case should be translated "by" (or "under" in the accusative case - which it is not!) The following from the ESV is a better translation, based on current understanding of both Greek and Hebrew.
"And all the country of Judea and all Jerusalem were going out to him and were being baptized by him in the river Jordan, confessing their sins." Mark 1:5 ESV
For that matter, there is NO "they of" Jerusalem as the KJV states, but rather all Jerusalem (technically "Jerusalem all" if you want a strict adherence to the Greek.) But NO added "they of" exists in the Greek.
I could find you examples of wrongly translated for the noun case in every chapter of the New Testament of the KJV.
As for the purportedly "flowery" language which many people feel gives the KJV some edge, most of that is because rather than using English grammar (typically, subject, verb, object and/or direct object) it tends to tightly follow the Greek grammar where subjects are thrown to the back of sentence.
Another example of a very famous phrase, incorrectly translated because the later manuscripts contained a word which lost the final sigma is Luke 2:14.
"Δόξα ἐν ὑψίστοις θεῷ καὶ ἐπὶ γῆς εἰρήνη ἐν ἀνθρώποις εὐδοκίας" Luke 2:14 Greek
The KJV uses the word εὐδοκία (eudokia) in the nominative case as the final word of the verse, whereas the older manuscripts used to translate the more modern translations use the word εὐδοκίας (eudokias) which is in the genitive case.
Thus KJV translates Luke 2:14 as "Peace on earth, good will toward men." This is universalism at its finest, and it has spawned more than a few heresies from the simple act of losing that one final sigma. Modern versions vary a bit in translating this word, but they all agree that God must have favour, or be pleased with those upon whom rest his favour. In other words, Christ's birth did NOT bring generic, universal peace for all humanity, but "peace" is limited to those who obtain favour with God by believing in his Son, Jesus Christ.
“Glory to God in the highest,
and on earth peace among those with whom he is pleased!" ESV
“Glory to God in the highest heaven,
and on earth peace to those on whom his favor rests.” NIV
“Glory to God in the highest heaven,
and on earth peace among those whom he favors!” NRSV
All of the modern versions correctly use the word εὐδοκίας which is the genitive case.
I could pick apart the KJV mistakes all day, but it would serve no purpose. And yes, Greek is incredibly easy to read, if you have a facility for languages. It also makes the Bible so much easier to understand. Although I do understand that many will not put the effort into learning this language, especially if their own English language skills and grammar leave something to be desired.
Actually, just comparing the Greek and KJV in Mark 1:5 alone makes me realize how many major mistakes are in the KJV. I know we compared Hebrew and KJV for several books of the Old Testament in Hebrew classes, and it was astounding how many places the KJV was just totally wrong. Another good reason to stick with the modern translations, which have a much better record than the numerous errors in the KJV.
I love you brother!
