Is there a break in Daniel's 70 weeks? (Daniel 9:26)

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Is there a break in Daniel's 70 weeks? (Daniel 9:26)

  • Yes

    Votes: 17 63.0%
  • No

    Votes: 10 37.0%

  • Total voters
    27

valiant

Senior Member
Mar 22, 2015
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Again, it is easy to see the gap. if one would just read what happens after the messiah is cut off. For the prophesy gives us a set of things which must occur. after that takes place (after the 69th week)

[SUP]26 [/SUP]“And after the sixty-two weeks Messiah shall be cut off, but not for Himself;

This occurs after, or at the end of the 69th week. The word after is a noun, It means after, behind, rear end following etc. In other words, at the completion of the 69th week. the messiah will be cut off.


I do love these amateur Hebraists who speak with such confidence, and with such nonsense. 'achar is originally a verb meaning 'delay'. Thus it does not have the sense of immediacy but of delay. From this verb comes the adverb used in Dan 9.26 which simply means 'some time afterwards. after a delay'. It does not have a sense of immediacy. (Almost all Hebrew words, whether nouns, adverbs, prepositions or pronouns are derived from verbs, thus it is the verb which gives the sense of the root idea). So all this sentence tells us is that some time after the end of the 69th seven He will be cut off. It cannot be made to mean immediately afterwards. Compare its use in Gen 6.4; 22.1. It often has the vague sense of 'some time afterwards.'

Thus your argument falls at the first hurdle.

Also remember. Messiah the prince was to be introduced 69 weeks to the day after the decree
(from the going forth of the command To restore and build Jerusalem Until Messiah the Prince,There shall be seven weeks and sixty-two weeks) which was fulfilled literally when Jesus entered jerusalem on the donkey.
That's funny, 'to the day is not in my Bible. It says 'some time after the sixty ninth seven.' And the word in mind was not man's decree but the going forth of God's word, the word that went forth in verse 23. Inconvenient but true.

I am not sure how it was literally fulfilled when Jesus entered into Jerusalem on a donkey. I see no mention of a donkey. But no I realise what you mean when you talk of taking the Bible 'literally'. You simply mean in accordance with your own ideas.

And the people of the prince who is to come Shall destroy the city and the sanctuary.

Fulfilled 70 AD. almost 40 years AFTER messiah was cut off (thus we already have introduced a gap)
But NOWHERE does it say that this occurs within the seventy sevens!!!!! That is just your assumption. It is an added remark commenting on something that will happen. It does not say that it will happen within the seventy sevens.

But suppose some intelligent person asked when this took place. He would look at the text and realise the answer immediately. It was when the sacrifices and oblations were cut off in the midst of the seventieth seven. That is referring to the Temple ceasing to be effective, clearly because it has been destroyed. To ignore the similarity between the two statements in such a limited context would be criminal. It would show interpretation gone wild. Thus it tells us that half a 'seven' can be seen as forty years.

Ah well, bang goes the 'seven = seven years' doctrine, and thank God for that. Now we don't have to play around with history in order to make it fit our pattern. We can let the Spirit guide us into its true meaning.


The end of it shall be with a flood, And till the end of the war desolations are determined.

Daniel is being told that jerusalem will lie desolate (in gentile hands) until the end of war desolations are determined.


As I am sure you are aware this verse is 'loose Hebrew' and can be translated any number of ways (whichever suits our theories lol). A more accurate translation is 'to the end wars and desolations are determined' which is exactly what Jesus said would happen after His coming and death and after the destruction of the Temple (Matt 24).

We are not given a time, but we know Jerusalem is still desolate today.
well I suppose that depends on how you define 'desolate'. I am not sure the Israelis would agree with you. It is a built up and proud city. But why let facts get in the way of a theory.

This it is NOT in disagreeing with scripture to understand this time (gap) is still in effect)
Of course it is. Like the seventy years, the seventy sevens were to be consecutive without a gap. There is no justification for seeing it otherwise. If our theory inserts a gap it proves our theory is wrong, WRONG.

We can also look at matt 24 to see. Jesus says there will be wars and rumors of wars.. This is the same time period.
Yes starting from His death and the destruction of the Temple

[SUP]27 [/SUP]Then he shall confirm a covenant with many for one week;
The antecedent to 'he' is either the Messiah, the people of the Messiah, or God Himself. The covenant of God is confirmed with His people until the end comes,

But in the middle of the week
He shall bring an end to sacrifice and offering.
By crucifying the Messiah and destroying the Temple. The two ideas are linked in the New Testament.

And on the wing of abominations shall be one who makes desolate,
Even until the consummation, which is determined,
Is poured out on the desolate.”
This speaks of Gods wrath, Great tribulation, or jacobs trouble. The desolate are those in opposition to God. The consumation of this time period again is spoken of by Jesus himself. (when you see the son of man coming in the clouds)
It says nothing about God's wrath. Nor of 'great tribulation'. Why should it be the time of Jacob's trouble. It is speaking of the history of the world as outlined by Jesus.
 
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valiant

Senior Member
Mar 22, 2015
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My Bible has a capital "P" for Prince in (v.25) and a small "p" for prince in (v.26).
LOL Hebrew in the days of Daniel was all in small letters. Each man capitalises as he desires :)
 

valiant

Senior Member
Mar 22, 2015
8,025
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Keep dreaming friend.....Daniel predicted many things at the end of the age and even stated clearly that he did not understand...he uses a time, times and half a time<---- 3.5 years and my math stands....it is not prophetic, it is literal and if you would open your eyes you might figure it out! ;)
LOL cling to your fallacies if you wish :) A time and times (plural) and half a time can be any number of years. Daniel is NOWHERE specific about a period of 1260 days or forty two months or three and a half years.
 

valiant

Senior Member
Mar 22, 2015
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Quirinus held a census in Judaea after the banishment of Archelaus (Joseph. Ant. 18:1, 1), which took place B.C. 6.
(from McClintock and Strong Encyclopedia, Electronic Database. Copyright © 2000, 2003, 2005, 2006 by Biblesoft, Inc. All rights reserved.)
The banishment of Archelaus took place in 6 AD :)
 
Dec 12, 2013
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LOL cling to your fallacies if you wish :) A time and times (plural) and half a time can be any number of years. Daniel is NOWHERE specific about a period of 1260 days or forty two months or three and a half years.
Are you that dense....Daniel predicts the END...GO TO Revelation and it is obvious that 3.5 years, 42 months or 1260 days is what is talked about...have some more tea and a biscuit pal as your inability to add is astounding...maybe you grew up on a sheep farm or something ;)
 

valiant

Senior Member
Mar 22, 2015
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VALIANT said -LOL cling to your fallacies if you wish :) A time and times (plural) and half a time can be any number of years. Daniel is NOWHERE specific about a period of 1260 days or forty two months or three and a half years.
Are you that dense....Daniel predicts the END...GO TO Revelation and it is obvious that 3.5 years, 42 months or 1260 days is what is talked about...have some more tea and a biscuit pal as your inability to add is astounding...maybe you grew up on a sheep farm or something ;)
Well you clearly grew up wallowing in the mire. It comes out of your mouth like sewage LOL

Where did Daniel 'predict the end' of the world? To Daniel the end he was waiting for was the coming of the Messiah when God's kingly rule would be set up.

The use by John in Revelation of a vague term is NO INDICATION of what it meant to Daniel. That's the problem with you people who treat the Scriptures like a jigsaw. You use no discernment.

I suggest you go and wallow in whisky. It might help you to see better :)
 
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Well you clearly grew up wallowing in the mire. It comes out of your mouth like sewage LOL

Where did Daniel 'predict the end' of the world? To Daniel the end he was waiting for was the coming of the Messiah.

The use by John in Revelation of a vague term is NO INDICATION of what it meant to Daniel. That's the problem with you people who treat the Scriptures like a jigsaw. You use no discernment.

I suggest you go and wallow in whisky. It might help you to see better :)

STRANGE how you do not understand English pal...sealed up to the TIME OF THE END is clear and maybe you should quit putting wiskey in your tea and then you might be able to not only walk straight but see without your religious spin off haha

And for the record...the jesting and or joking is fine by me ;)
 

valiant

Senior Member
Mar 22, 2015
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Originally Posted by valiant
Well you clearly grew up wallowing in the mire. It comes out of your mouth like sewage LOL

Where did Daniel 'predict the end' of the world? To Daniel the end he was waiting for was the coming of the Messiah.

The use by John in Revelation of a vague term is NO INDICATION of what it meant to Daniel. That's the problem with you people who treat the Scriptures like a jigsaw. You use no discernment.

I suggest you go and wallow in whisky. It might help you to see better :)
STRANGE how you do not understand English pal...sealed up to the TIME OF THE END is clear
Ah but the end of what? Daniel is thinking of the time of the end of Israel's problems when the Messiah will come (as in Dan 7.13-14; 9.25-27). Thus the time of the end in 11.40 refers to the reign of Herod the Great. Who else heard tidings from the east which resulted in a massacre? Who else gave no heed to the One beloved of women? Verses 36-45 clearly speak of Herod whose death would of course issue in Messiah's reign.

It is not a coincidence that the fourth empire was the Roman empire.


and maybe you should quit putting wiskey in your tea and then you might be able to not only walk straight but see without your religious spin off haha
I have a different Spirit in me :)

And for the record...the jesting and or joking is fine by me ;)
Me too lol:
 

jb

Senior Member
Feb 27, 2010
4,940
589
113
Originally Posted by valiant
LOL cling to your fallacies if you wish :) A time and times (plural) and half a time can be any number of years. Daniel is NOWHERE specific about a period of 1260 days or forty two months or three and a half years.
Age has simply re-enforced unscriptural man made traditions in his mind and spirit, his "truth" comes out of the darkness of such, I feel you're wasting your time debating anything on endtime prophecy with him DC...
 
G

GaryA

Guest

I did, And I have, and my view still stands unless someone can convince me otherwise (I am open to change, I have changed my position in a few times in my lifetime)

But it will take more than "You are misinterpreting prophesy"

it will take showing me where I have erred and why
As if I have not said anything more than "You are misinterpreting prophecy" in the 37 posts I have made in this thread so far ( before this one ) or the many other posts I have made on the subject in other theads also...

:rolleyes:

( I am thinking that you probably didn't even read the short comments I embedded in the quote in post #275... :p )

I am trying to show you where you have erred and why; however, you are "not listening"... ;)

The first thing you must learn how to do properly is read the 'grammar of the language' without all of the pre-conceived pre-determined pre-decided pre-conclusions that you have been taught getting in the way. Until you understand the following - all of which comes directly from the 'grammar of the language' - there is [ essentially ] no hope that you can obtain a proper understanding of what this passage is really saying:

Daniel 9:

[SUP]24[/SUP] Seventy weeks are determined upon thy people and upon thy holy city, to finish the transgression, and to make an end of sins, and to make reconciliation for iniquity, and to bring in everlasting righteousness, and to seal up the vision and prophecy, and to anoint the most Holy. [SUP]25[/SUP] Know therefore and understand, that from the going forth of the commandment to restore and to build Jerusalem unto the Messiah the Prince shall be
seven weeks, and threescore and two weeks: the street shall be built again, and the wall, even in troublous times. [SUP]26[/SUP] And after threescore and two weeks shall Messiah be cut off, but not for himself: and the people of the prince that shall come shall destroy the city and the sanctuary; and the end thereof shall be with a flood, and unto the end of the war desolations are determined. [SUP]27[/SUP] And he shall confirm the covenant with many for one week: and in the midst of the week he shall cause the sacrifice and the oblation to cease, and for the overspreading of abominations he shall make it desolate, even until the consummation, and that determined shall be poured upon the desolate.


A correct interpretation of this passage requires a sufficient understanding of the following...

According to the 'grammar of the language':

~ The phrase "seven weeks, and threescore and two weeks" cannot be "disassembled" in such a way that the end of the first seven weeks becomes a reference point to which 62 weeks can be added ( in verse 26 ). It is only properly interpreted collectively ( in week-counting terms ) as 69 weeks.

~ This phrase is very significant. In week-counting terms, it refers to the end of the rebuilding of Jerusalem. It is from this point that the 62 weeks are added. ( The words "And after" in verse 26 refer back to this phrase. )

~ This part of the verse is an 'aside'; it is a "look-ahead" reference to events ( ~70 A.D. ) that do not even take place within the 70 weeks, and has absolutely no connection what-so-ever with the "counting" of weeks or the events that are associated with those weeks.

~ There is no reference to the word 'prince' ( in verse 26 ) anywhere in the passage. All three of the words 'he' in verse 27 refer back to the word 'Messiah' in verse 26.

~ This is also a "look-ahead" reference, and has no direct connection with the 70 weeks.


"If you do not understand all of these things very clearly --- 'keep studying' until you do..." :D


:)
It all begins with the 'grammar of the language'... ;)

:)
 

valiant

Senior Member
Mar 22, 2015
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Age has simply re-enforced unscriptural man made traditions in his mind and spirit, his "truth" comes out of the darkness of such, I feel you're wasting your time debating anything on endtime prophecy with him DC...
lol, sonny. I swallowed your doctrines when I was young and naïve. But I was too honest to do all the manoeuvring of Scriptures and changing of the Greek and Hebrew that were necessary in order to maintain it. In the end I came to see that the Old must be interpreted by the New.

I do feel that many of you wallow in the mire of extreme literalism and are so taken over by the physical that you fail to observe the spiritual significance of passages as revealed in the New Testament.

The Scriptures were never meant to be taken apart and fitted together like a jigsaw. You don't find that in the New Testament. Have you thought of that? They were intended to propound great ideas and themes, which pointed to deeper spiritual truths, and the workings of God in the grand way, as revealed in the New Testament, not in the pernickety, beggarly fusing together of ideas which leave the soul barren. 'Knowledge' of so-called prophecy today is often knowledge of deadness, and leads to a dead spirit because it concentrates on the flesh.

I get the impression that you are all eagerly looking forward to God giving unbelievers a good pasting. Thus you wallow in passages which give that impression, failing to recognise their true spiritual meaning
 
E

eternally-gratefull

Guest


I do love these amateur Hebraists who speak with such confidence, and with such nonsense. 'achar is originally a verb meaning 'delay'. Thus it does not have the sense of immediacy but of delay. From this verb comes the adverb used in Dan 9.26 which simply means 'some time afterwards. after a delay'. It does not have a sense of immediacy. (Almost all Hebrew words, whether nouns, adverbs, prepositions or pronouns are derived from verbs, thus it is the verb which gives the sense of the root idea). So all this sentence tells us is that some time after the end of the 69th seven He will be cut off. It cannot be made to mean immediately afterwards. Compare its use in Gen 6.4; 22.1. It often has the vague sense of 'some time afterwards.'

Thus your argument falls at the first hurdle.


˒ahar (אַחַר, 310), “behind; after(wards).” A cognate of this word occurs in Ugaritic. ˒Ahar appears about 713 times in biblical Hebrew and in all periods.
One adverbial use of ˒ahar has a local-spatial emphasis that means “behind”: “The singers went before, the players on instruments followed after …” (Ps. 68:25). Another adverbial usage has a temporal emphasis that can mean “afterwards”: “And I will fetch a morsel of bread, and comfort ye your hearts; after that ye shall pass on …” (Gen. 18:5).



So we see that this person is not being completely honest in what he says, This alone should let us know. anything he says is suspect. But I will give him the benefit of the doubt (before you start slamming on someone's language skills, you better make sure they do not have any resources at their hand to test what your saying)

Second, I used biblical reasoning. THE OT prophets state how messiah will be introduced to Israel as her messiah, He will enter on a donkey,

see Zech 9: [SUP]9 [/SUP]Rejoice greatly, O daughter of Zion! Shout, O daughter of Jerusalem! Behold, your King is coming to you; He is just and having salvation, Lowly and riding on a donkey, A colt, the foal of a donkey

And just in case you doubt, It is recorded for all to see in Matt 21:

Matt 21:
[SUP]4 [/SUP]All this was done that it might be fulfilled which was spoken by the prophet, saying:[SUP]5 [/SUP]“Tell the daughter of Zion, ‘Behold, your King is coming to you, Lowly, and sitting on a donkey, A colt, the foal of a donkey.’” [SUP]6 [/SUP]So the disciples went and did as Jesus commanded them. [SUP]7 [/SUP]They brought the donkey and the colt, laid their clothes on them, and set Him on them. [SUP]8 [/SUP]And a very great multitude spread their clothes on the road; others cut down branches from the trees and spread them on the road. [SUP]9 [/SUP]Then the multitudes who went before and those who followed cried out, saying:



So in context. from going forth of command to restore CITY until messiah the prince is 7 plus 62 weeks.

Messiah was cut off literally 1 week of days later. so the term after fits. Even your so called interpretation of it, since it was not immediately. A lot of things happened in those days after Jesus entered Jerusalem.

so your reasoning behind your words my argument falls at the first hurdle is destroyed.








That's funny, 'to the day is not in my Bible. It says 'some time after the sixty ninth seven.' And the word in mind was not man's decree but the going forth of God's word, the word that went forth in verse 23. Inconvenient but true.
See my last paragraph. From command to rebuild until messiah it means the messiah will be introduced at the end of the 7 + 62 week period.

it does not say some time after. That's your faulty interpretation of vs 25 of Daniel 9

I am not sure how it was literally fulfilled when Jesus entered into Jerusalem on a donkey. I see no mention of a donkey. But no I realise what you mean when you talk of taking the Bible 'literally'. You simply mean in accordance with your own ideas.
I already posted it to you.

Prophesy is an ongoing thing, we must take ALL prophesy together, not just one aspect of it, it is one of the checks and balances we can use to keep people from forming their own opinion of what the prophets are saying.


But NOWHERE does it say that this occurs within the seventy sevens!!!!! That is just your assumption. It is an added remark commenting on something that will happen. It does not say that it will happen within the seventy sevens.

But suppose some intelligent person asked when this took place. He would look at the text and realise the answer immediately. It was when the sacrifices and oblations were cut off in the midst of the seventieth seven. That is referring to the Temple ceasing to be effective, clearly because it has been destroyed. To ignore the similarity between the two statements in such a limited context would be criminal. It would show interpretation gone wild. Thus it tells us that half a 'seven' can be seen as forty years.
Well maybe a normal person who has not studied, But for those of us who study, we would know it would not be in the middle of the week (you already have a major flaw here because you have this occurring some 40 years after messiah the prince was cut off) but a person who studied would know the sacrifices were stopped because the sanctuary was made unclean by the abomination that caused desolation. And not the destruction.

So any intelligent person who studied would know it could not be in 70 AD when the sacrifices stopped according to the prophecy.


Ah well, bang goes the 'seven = seven years' doctrine, and thank God for that. Now we don't have to play around with history in order to make it fit our pattern. We can let the Spirit guide us into its true meaning.

ah well, Your wrong so far on all accounts, So I do not know which spirit is showing you which truth.


As I am sure you are aware this verse is 'loose Hebrew' and can be translated any number of ways (whichever suits our theories lol). A more accurate translation is 'to the end wars and desolations are determined' which is exactly what Jesus said would happen after His coming and death and after the destruction of the Temple (Matt 24).
Yep. Wars and rumors of wars. Nations rise against nation and kingdom against kingdom. All have occurred after these things, But as jesus said, the end is not near yet

Still From the time Jesus was on earth until even today, Jerusalem and the temple mount is in Gentiles hands.

So the prophesy fits. and is confirmed as true. (of Course, God spoke it through the angel, so of course it is true)


well I suppose that depends on how you define 'desolate'. I am not sure the Israelis would agree with you. It is a built up and proud city. But why let facts get in the way of a theory.
The Dome of the rock sits on the temple mount, I would consider that (as would all jews) to be desolate.

Thank you.


Of course it is. Like the seventy years, the seventy sevens were to be consecutive without a gap. There is no justification for seeing it otherwise. If our theory inserts a gap it proves our theory is wrong, WRONG.
You should not assume things, Many prophesies have gaps included in them. I think it has been proven well to be in reason.



Yes starting from His death and the destruction of the Temple
That would be wrong, Unless you believe he already came. Because the wars were just the start of the birth pangs, There were no wars and rumors of wars and kingdom rising up against kingdom between his death and 70 AD.
you have to be careful when you think things out, you have to study and see all things. or you make mistakes.



The antecedent to 'he' is either the Messiah, the people of the Messiah, or God Himself. The covenant of God is confirmed with His people until the end comes,


Again, this is a mistake in interpretation
the he confirms a covent
The he commits the abomination of desolation (which makes the inner sanctum unclean and stops sacrifice)
the he is allowed to rule for only a certain time period (see all of daniels prophesies which go hand in hand)
the he is destroyed by the return of Christ.

So has Christ returned yet? I thought so. the HE is yet future.


By crucifying the Messiah and destroying the Temple. The two ideas are linked in the New Testament.

Yet Israel is still in sin, and jerusalem and the temple still lies desolate. And messiah has not yet returned. and so on and so forth.

Again, You need to study prophesy as a whole Even the disciples understood. the end of time, when you return.


It says nothing about God's wrath. Nor of 'great tribulation'. Why should it be the time of Jacob's trouble. It is speaking of the history of the world as outlined by Jesus.
matt 24: [SUP]15 [/SUP]“Therefore when you see the ‘abomination of desolation,’[SUP][c][/SUP] spoken of by Daniel the prophet, standing in the holy place” (whoever reads, let him understand), [SUP]16 [/SUP]“then let those who are in Judea flee to the mountains. [SUP]17 [/SUP]Let him who is on the housetop not go down to take anything out of his house. [SUP]18 [/SUP]And let him who is in the field not go back to get his clothes. [SUP]19 [/SUP]But woe to those who are pregnant and to those who are nursing babies in those days! [SUP]20 [/SUP]And pray that your flight may not be in winter or on the Sabbath. [SUP]21 [/SUP]For then there will be great tribulation, such as has not been since the beginning of the world until this time, no, nor ever shall be. [SUP]22 [/SUP]And unless those days were shortened, no flesh would be saved; but for the elect’s sake those days will be shortened.

Jesus put it in context. as did other prophets..

Again, Study prophesy as a whole. not as a part. It will help you understand better

 
E

eternally-gratefull

Guest
As if I have not said anything more than "You are misinterpreting prophecy" in the 37 posts I have made in this thread so far ( before this one ) or the many other posts I have made on the subject in other theads also...

:rolleyes:

( I am thinking that you probably didn't even read the short comments I embedded in the quote in post #275... :p )

I am trying to show you where you have erred and why; however, you are "not listening"... ;)

The first thing you must learn how to do properly is read the 'grammar of the language' without all of the pre-conceived pre-determined pre-decided pre-conclusions that you have been taught getting in the way. Until you understand the following - all of which comes directly from the 'grammar of the language' - there is [ essentially ] no hope that you can obtain a proper understanding of what this passage is really saying:


It all begins with the 'grammar of the language'... ;)

:)

Grammar and language can not contradict context and reasoning.

They go together

You still have not convinced me, so again, are you going to try?

I have heard your reasoning before. and many other things (I have studied this topic for about 30 years now)

So. do you have anything else? or just your opinion?
 
G

GaryA

Guest
Grammar and language can not contradict context and reasoning.
Neither can context and reasoning contradict grammar and language... :eek:

The meaning of scripture always rests in - and begins with - what scripture actually says [ in the 'grammar of the language' ]. ;)

:)
 

valiant

Senior Member
Mar 22, 2015
8,025
124
63
Originally Posted by valiant


I do love these amateur Hebraists who speak with such confidence, and with such nonsense. 'achar is originally a verb meaning 'delay'. Thus it does not have the sense of immediacy but of delay. From this verb comes the adverb used in Dan 9.26 which simply means 'some time afterwards. after a delay'. It does not have a sense of immediacy. (Almost all Hebrew words, whether nouns, adverbs, prepositions or pronouns are derived from verbs, thus it is the verb which gives the sense of the root idea). So all this sentence tells us is that some time after the end of the 69th seven He will be cut off. It cannot be made to mean immediately afterwards. Compare its use in Gen 6.4; 22.1. It often has the vague sense of 'some time afterwards.'

Thus your argument falls at the first hurdle.

[/B]˒ahar (אַחַר, 310), “behind; after(wards).” A cognate of this word occurs in Ugaritic. ˒Ahar appears about 713 times in biblical Hebrew and in all periods.

Quite true with a wide variety of meanings, Thus to argue that in a particular verse it can only have one meaning is simply dishonest. But then your whole façade concerning what are future events is based on manipulating Scriptures.


One adverbial use of ˒ahar has a local-spatial emphasis that means “behind”: “The singers went before, the players on instruments followed after …” (Ps. 68:25). Another adverbial usage has a temporal emphasis that can mean “afterwards”: “And I will fetch a morsel of bread, and comfort ye your hearts; after that ye shall pass on …” (Gen. 18:5).
Soooooo? No one denies a large number of meanings to achar. IT WAS YOU WHO TRIED TO ARGUE IT HAD TO BE TAKEN IN ONE WAY.


So we see that this person is not being completely honest in what he says,



EXACTLY what I was thinking about you. You read my mind.

This alone should let us know. anything he says is suspect.
LOL You wish!

But I will give him the benefit of the doubt (before you start slamming on someone's language skills, you better make sure they do not have any resources at their hand to test what your saying)
Yes you should have thought of that. I am a qualified Hebraist :)

Second, I used biblical reasoning. THE OT prophets state how messiah will be introduced to Israel as her messiah, He will enter on a donkey,

No one doubts that, But it is not to be found in Dan 9. I suppose I cannot expect you to think in a scholarly way, but you should try to avoid loose thinking. If you are expounding a text do not bring in extraneous texts without good reason.

see Zech 9: [SUP]9 [/SUP]Rejoice greatly, O daughter of Zion! Shout, O daughter of Jerusalem! Behold, your King is coming to you; He is just and having salvation, Lowly and riding on a donkey, A colt, the foal of a donkey

And just in case you doubt, It is recorded for all to see in Matt 21:



The point is not whether Zechariah prophesied the King's entry on a donkey but on what relevance it had to Dan 9. And the answer is NONE.


So in context. from going forth of command to restore CITY until messiah the prince is 7 plus 62 weeks.

Messiah was cut off literally 1 week of days later.
Now I begin to see the strange workings of your muddled mind. The coming of Messiah the Prince occurred when He was BORN, not when He entered Jerusalem. What a weird mind you have. So it was NOT one week later. He was cut off 33 years later.

so the term after fits
lol fits what? All it tells us is that some time after the sixty nine sevens Messiah was cut off.


. Even your so called interpretation of it, since it was not immediately. A lot of things happened in those days after Jesus entered Jerusalem.
You're learning. But even more things happened after His birth, when He 'came'.

so your reasoning behind your words my argument falls at the first hurdle is destroyed.
How?

See my last paragraph. From command to rebuild until messiah it means the messiah will be introduced at the end of the 7 + 62 week period.
yeas at that point he will be born.

it does not say some time after. That's your faulty interpretation of vs 25 of Daniel 9
but achar can mean some time after. That's the point. It does not necessarily mean immediately after. Thus you cannot emphasise it one way or the other. Your interpretation thus falls at the first hurdle. At least we can agree on that.


Prophesy is an ongoing thing, we must take ALL prophesy together, not just one aspect of it, it is one of the checks and balances we can use to keep people from forming their own opinion of what the prophets are saying.
What you mean is that you must pick out the bits that suit you and pretend that that confirms what you said. Prophecy has to be studied in its context, and not used as parts of a jigsaw. Otherwise it is just manipulation of Scripture.

Well maybe a normal person who has not studied,
Good so you agree that a NORMAL person would conjoin the idea of the destruction of Jerusalem and the cessation of the sacrifices, meaning that the destruction of Jerusalem occurred in the midst of the seventieth seven.. I have some news for you. DANIEL WAS WRITTEN FOR NORMAL PEOPLE.

But for those of us who study
,

I take it from your own words that these are ABNORMAL people?

we would know it would not be in the middle of the week (you already have a major flaw here because you have this occurring some 40 years after messiah the prince was cut off)
you men abnormal people would ignore the obvious meaning and would invent some spurious meaning that fitted in with their own ideas, distorting the whole prophecy? Well at least you are honest.

There is no flaw. I am not trying to force the prophecy into my mold. I accept that a 'seven' is NOT seven years because Daniel has nowhere suggested that it is. It is a divinely appointed period. Thus forty years could fit easily into one of God's 'sevens'.

but a person who studied would know the sacrifices were stopped because the sanctuary was made unclean by the abomination that caused desolation. And not the destruction.
You mean a person who studied your absurd theories and swallowed them? well it WAS made unclean by the idolatrous desolation (abomination of desolation), but it was when when Titus and his armies swept in and desecrated it with their idolatrous standards.

So any intelligent person who studied would know it could not be in 70 AD when the sacrifices stopped according to the prophecy.
It seems to me that any intelligent person would realise that that was exactly when it was.

ah well, Your wrong so far on all accounts,
It appears to me that it is you who is wrong on all accounts, coming to absurd conclusions.

So I do not know which spirit is showing you which truth.
No you wouldn't. But He is called the HOLY SPIRIT OF GOD. One day you'll learn about Him.

Yep. Wars and rumors of wars. Nations rise against nation and kingdom against kingdom. All have occurred after these things, But as jesus said, the end is not near yet
Very true. From the time of Jesus' crucifixion and the destruction of the Temple (two incidents regularly connected by God) there will be wars and rumours of wars until His second coming, when all will cease in the everlasting kingdom.

Still From the time Jesus was on earth until even today, Jerusalem and the temple mount is in Gentiles hands.
But the Temple Mount is now in Jewish hands, and has been for many years. They control it. The Arabs stay there with their permission. If they wished they could destroy the Mosque of Omar and build a new Temple, although only of course if they were prepared to take the consequences. So it is in their hands. You even twist descriptions in order to back up your false theories..

So the prophesy fits. and is confirmed as true.
You mean you try to make it fit into your odd schemes even though it does decidedly NOT?

(of Course, God spoke it through the angel, so of course it is true)
Daniel's prophecy is true, NOT your interpretation of it. You have proved nothing and failed to disprove my position.

The Dome of the rock sits on the temple mount, I would consider that (as would all jews) to be desolate.

I have been there. It is a beautiful building from a worldly point of view. Whatever it is it is not desolate.

I suggest that it is the Jews who are desolated, not the Dome of the Rock. The desolation spoken of in Daniel is LTERAL desolation. But then you only take things literally when it suits you


You should not assume things, Many prophesies have gaps included in them. I think it has been proven well to be in reason.
Not when put within a number framework.



That would be wrong, Unless you believe he already came. Because the wars were just the start of the birth pangs, There were no wars and rumors of wars and kingdom rising up against kingdom between his death and 70 AD.
which just demonstrates how little you know about 1st century history. The birth pangs led up to the destruction of the Temple in 70 AD just as Jesus said they would. There were many wars at that time.

you have to be careful when you think things out, you have to study and see all things. or you make mistakes.
Something you should take careful note of.

Again, this is a mistake in interpretation
LOL so you are about to change the text to fit in with your ideas?

the he confirms a covenant
The He confirms GOD's covenant. Whenever Daniel speaks of the covenant (as opposed to an alliance) it always means GOD's covenant. So yes God (or the Messiah, or the people of God) renews the covenant with His people