Jesus temporary punishment paid the price?

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OwenHeidenreich

Guest
#1
#1
Propitiation
pro·pi·ti·a·tion

/prəˌpiSHēˈāSHən/

[TABLE="class: vk_txt ts"]
[TR]
[TD][COLOR=#878787 !important]Noun[/COLOR]
[TABLE="class: ts"]
[TR]
[TD]
  1. The action of propitiating or appeasing a god, spirit, or person.
[/TD]
[/TR]
[/TABLE]
[/TD]
[/TR]
[/TABLE]

Appeasing present participle of ap·pease (Verb)


Pacify or placate (someone) by acceding to their demands.
Relieve or satisfy (a demand or a feeling): "we give to charity because it appeases our guilt".



Romans 3:25 Whom God hath set forth [to be] a propitiation through faith in his blood, to declare his righteousness for the remission of sins that are past, through the forbearance of God; (my emphasis added)[/COLOR]

The word propitiate means to appease, or satisfy God.

So this verse is saying Christ's death satisfied Gods demand for justice.




My question is: Why does Eternal Punishment propitiate God, when Jesus temporary death propitiated God?

And if your answer includes the perfection of Jesus: please use scripture to justify your claim.
 
A

Abiding

Guest
#2
#2
Mans judgement was death. God accepted a kinsman redeemer. Jesus was the kinsman redeemer. His death
was a death...theres no such thing as a temporary death. He arose as a firstfruit of a new creation.

You should read Romans 5 a few times but these verses explain what the Kinsman redeemer did.

14 Nevertheless death reigned from Adam to Moses, even over those who had not sinned according to the likeness of the transgression of Adam, who is a type of Him who was to come. 15But the free gift is not like the offense. For if by the one man's offense many died, much more the grace of God and the gift by the grace of the one Man, Jesus Christ, abounded to many. 16 And the gift is not like that which came through the one who sinned. For the judgment which came from one offense resulted in condemnation, but the free gift which came from many offenses resulted in justification. 17 For if by the one man's offense death reigned through the one, much more those who receive abundance of grace and of the gift of righteousness will reign in life through the One, Jesus Christ.) 18 Therefore, as through one man's offense judgment came to all men, resulting in condemnation, even so through one Man's righteous act the free gift came to all men, resulting in justification of life. 19 For as by one man's disobedience many were made sinners, so also by one Man's obedience many will be made righteous. 20 Moreover the law entered that the offense might abound. But where sin abounded, grace abounded much more, 21 so that as sin reigned in death, even so grace might reign through righteousness to eternal life through Jesus Christ our Lord.
 
E

Elin

Banned
#3
Jan 19, 2013
11,909
141
0
#3
OwenHeidenreich said:
Propitiation
pro·pi·ti·a·tion

/prəˌpiSHēˈāSHən/

[TABLE="class: vk_txt ts"]
[TR]
[TD]
[COLOR=#878787 !important]Noun[/COLOR]
[TABLE="class: ts"]
[TR]
[TD]

  1. The action of propitiating or appeasing a god, spirit, or person.
[/TD]
[/TR]
[/TABLE]
[/TD]
[/TR]
[/TABLE]

Appeasing present participle of ap·pease (Verb)


Pacify or placate (someone) by acceding to their demands.
Relieve or satisfy (a demand or a feeling): "we give to charity because it appeases our guilt".



Romans 3:25 Whom God hath set forth [to be] a propitiation through faith in his blood, to declare his righteousness for the remission of sins that are past, through the forbearance of God; (my emphasis added)[/COLOR]

The word propitiate means to appease, or satisfy God.

So this verse is saying Christ's death satisfied Gods demand for justice.

My question is: Why does Eternal Punishment propitiate God, when Jesus temporary death propitiated God?

And if your answer includes the perfection of Jesus: please use scripture to justify your claim.
Click to expand...
The word of God is good enough for me.
 
zone

zone

Senior Member
#4
Jun 13, 2010
27,214
164
63
#4
OwenHeidenreich said:
My question is: Why does Eternal Punishment propitiate God, when Jesus temporary death propitiated God?

And if your answer includes the perfection of Jesus: please use scripture to justify your claim.
Click to expand...
because He never sinned; death couldn't hold him.
unsaved sinners however are another matter.
 
T

tdrew777

Guest
#5
#5
1. Jesus atonement is sufficient to appease the wrath of God for all sin, for all time, because of his supreme dignity.
Heb 9:11-14 But Christ having come a high priest of the good things to come, through the greater and more perfect tabernacle, not made with hands, that is to say, not of this creation, nor yet through the blood of goats and calves, but through his own blood, entered in once for all into the holy place, having obtained eternal redemption. For if the blood of goats and bulls, and the ashes of a heifer sprinkling them that have been defiled, sanctify unto the cleanness of the flesh: how much more shall the blood of Christ, who through the eternal Spirit offered himself without blemish unto God, cleanse your conscience from dead works to serve the living God.
2. No one is punished eternally for temporal sins. It is an eye for an eye, a tooth for a tooth. Men come to the judgement seat of Christ with all sins in time forgiven!!!! But they come with their evil, unregenerate character. They have refused the regenerated character available through the Holy Spirit. They continue to sin - at the judgement seat. They continue to sin - in hell. What else can a soul with an unregenerate character do? Their punishment is eternal - because they eternally have the evil character they loved. From hell they raise their fists at God and say, "I was born this way (correct), so its all God's fault (incorrect). There is no further atonement. There is the wrath of fire that consumes the adversaries.
 
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