This is fun on our KJV only basis

[NiceneCreed]

Yeah, there are better translations. ESV, NASB, I like KJV actually because I can read at a College level. There are certain ones - message and all them that are paraphrases, and should be treated as such. Serious students of the word, need to have multiple versions, read them, know them, but also know the rhema - or voice of the Holy Spirit, however He speaks to your love language

I, likewise, can read at a college level, as I am a religion major. Yet I prefer the NIV over the KJV; I don't like reading from the KJV so much because it is written in archaic English.

 

[Donkeyfish07]

So you are saying that Easter is actully Satans doing, so why is it in the King James ! As your links point out, Easter was not in existence until long after Acts was written, therefore the use of PAssover is the correct one.

As I said, starter links and it goes deeper......the original diety in question that particular holiday originated from is Ishtar.

Ishtar (Mesopotamian goddess) -- Encyclopedia Britannica

 

[NiceneCreed]

Some would say there are verses missing from the NIV.
Such as fasting as a necessary ingredient to expel a demon.
Anyone who has been under the influence of a certain ungodly thing knows that you must quit it before you can be freed from it.
"This kind doesn't come out except through prayer and fasting." - Verse missing in the NIV.

I was unaware this verse was omitted in the NIV. Was it omitted due to better, newer translation?

 

[Agricola]

I was unaware this verse was omitted in the NIV. Was it omitted due to better, newer translation?

The NIV is not hiding anything or trying to change things despite what the King James Only Cult say, the "missing verse" is listed in footnote, with explanation that a number of early documents had this ommited.

 

[Donkeyfish07]

So you are saying that Easter is actully Satans doing, so why is it in the King James ! As your links point out, Easter was not in existence until long after Acts was written, therefore the use of PAssover is the correct one.

Also, I realized i didn't answer your question. It's a very simple one actually....the word easter only occurs once in the KJV.

Acts 12:4

"And when he had apprehended him, he put him in prison, and delivered him to four quaternions of soldiers to keep him; intending after Easter to bring him forth to the people."

The answer is simple.....Herod intentions were for after easter.....not Passover. That's why it is only mentioned once in the entire KJV.....they are different holidays (Although they are almost indistinguishly overlapped in modern traditions (not to mention the timing of them were usually very close to each other............and most people have no education regarding the difference or history of either)....the difference was much more obvious and well known back then.

 

[NiceneCreed]

The NIV is not hiding anything or trying to change things despite what the King James Only Cult say, the "missing verse" is listed in footnote, with explanation that a number of early documents had this ommited.

Agricola,

Thank you for your reply. It seemed strange a verse would be omitted without cause.


God Bless!