Tongues Again???

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VCO

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I'm just curious here. Are you allowing for the possibility of genuine speaking in tongues today?

. . .

Wow, either you have forgotten or skipped over quite a few of my paragraphs. I have always allowed for the genuine tongues being occasionally used by missionaries, IF THEY DO IT THE EXACT SAME WAY THE APOSTLES DID, speaking to unbelievers in their own native tongue, perfectly correct right down to the accent. You gave me a couple examples that have the potential of being the real McCoy, but I would have to know all the details and specifics about what was said, who heard and understood the language, ETC., before I could make that judgement call. What happens in the in the Charismatic Churches, has not even come close to being the Real McCoy, using what the Apostles and the Disciples did as the yard stick. No one is hearing what was said in their own native Dialect, No one that I have seen is even speaking to Unbelievers with those unbelievers hearing their language spoken perfectly. No one is proclaiming the normal recited mighty works of GOD as was the custom of the Jews as they speak those languages, ETC. Different than what the Apostles and Disciples did equals a complete counterfeit.

You also forget, I married into a Charismatic family and went to church with them fairly often when we visited them. AND GOT into heated debates on this subject with two of my Sister inlaws, 15 years before I bought my first computer.


1 Corinthians 14:22 (BBE)
[SUP]22 [/SUP] For this reason tongues are for a sign, not to those who have faith, but to those who have not: but the prophet's word is for those who have faith, and not for the rest who have not.
 

presidente

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Wow, either you have forgotten or skipped over quite a few of my paragraphs. I have always allowed for the genuine tongues being occasionally used by missionaries, IF THEY DO IT THE EXACT SAME WAY THE APOSTLES DID, speaking to unbelievers in their own native tongue, perfectly correct right down to the accent.
You are taking one account of what the apostles did, and discounting what Paul, also an apostle, did.

Speaking in tongues is speaking in tongues. Other people being present who understand is other people being present who understand. Those aren't the same thing. The gift of 'divers tongues' is an ability to speak in divers tongues, or one of those divers tongues. It is not the ability to make people appear who understand the language.

There is no evidence that people were present who understood the languages in Acts 10 or Acts 19, and I Corinthians 14 even plainly tells us when any man speaks in tongues 'no man understandeth him.' We know this was 'the real McCoy' in Corinth because Paul wanted the utterances interpreted to edify others.

How would translating fake tongues edify others?
 

wolfwint

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Feb 15, 2014
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Hi Presidente, you wrote:

"Correct me if I am wrong, but I wonder the line of reasoning behind some of your posts is the idea that if Pentecostalism is wrong about 'the initial evidence doctrine' that the whole movement is not of God. Am I overstating your position or your way of thinking? Please let me know if I am.
We could apply this line of reasoning to the Great Awakening, too. A Calvinist might think that John Wesley was wrong about certain doctrines related to predestination, prevenient grace or whatever areas of conflict Calvinists typeically have with Methodist thought. Would a Calvinist be justified in concluding that John Wesley's preaching and the Methodist movement were all 'not of God'? Would he be right in saying that George Whitfield's preaching and minsitry was good, but not Wesley's. They were both part of the same movement in spite of their theological differences.
Would it make sense for a Methodist to conclude that George Whitfield's evangelistic ministry or the ministry of John Knox in England were totally not of God based on the fact that they had different views related to predestination?
Doctrinal error is a bad thing. Doctrine is important. But Methodists and Calvinists have a lot more in common than they do differences."

Wolf: No, you are right. I think there is a different Spirit behind the pentecostal and the charismatic movements.
Why I am thinking this?

There is a big different between all the denominations which we have with there vaious doctrines to the pentecostal ore the charismatic movments. All the doctrines which we have are based of manthinking and are not 100% perfect. Mostly because of different understanding and meaning of the scripture. The pentecostal movement claim there teaching is from the Holy Spirit himself! Because the second baptism with the gift of speaking in tongues can not be done through human beiings. So it is the Holy Spirit who is behind the movement they claims, this means God is behind. The consequence of this is, that all christians which are not following this doctrine are false!!!!!!!
Because this startet with Topeka and Parham it means also all christians before this were wrong, because we dont find this doctrine in the churchhistory and also not in the NT.
Of course God sends awakenings, and he is uesing all who preach the gospel! That means not that he is agree with the doctrines we have. Otherwise nobody would turn to Christ. It is not the doctrine which wehave leads to Christ. It is the word of God. Either we preach with right ore wrong motives God can use it to call people in his family! But then it is the taks to nourish the new born babes with the rigth food and the right teaching. And mostly in this task we as christians are failing.

I can be a calvinist and can be a born again child of God. I can be a mennonite and can be a born again child of God. I also can be a pentecostal and can be a born again child of God. But this not means that the spirit I follow is right.

I simply can not believe that we as christians have all the same Holy Spirit and some have him special since a certain time (1900) and the result is that the christianity is splitt.

According my believe the pentecostal/charismatic doctrine which is splittet and partly fighting against themself, makes false promisses to the believer (health and wealth- you must only have enough faith) Like the oneness movement which claimes that every true believer must speak in tongues, otherwise he has not the Holy Spirit. Charismatics which are going in churches and destroying them. Charismatics and Pentacostals which working togehter with the RCC and have no problem to accept the pope.
Sorry this is according my understanding no act of the Holy Spirit!
It is an very attractive doctrine, because the people search something special, search some extraordinary, want to see and feel.
People are slain, laughing, screaming, resting in the Spirit. Acting and noising like animals. For me no sign as from the Holy Spirit!
I know its hard to you to hear and I understand if you are not agree with me. I hope you can distiguish the spirit and can see what is behind.

Presidente:"Many Pentecostals were zealous for spiritual gifts, not just tongues, but also healing, prophesying, interpretation of tongues, and also teaching and the more commonly accepted gifts. If the standard Pentecostal 'initial evidence doctrine' goes to far, does that mean that God does not respond to Christians in the movement who pray and work in faith toward God?"


Wolf: God responses to his children no question!!! So as he answers prayers to his children in any denomiation!
But I believe there is not Gods Spirit behind the pentecostal doctrine about the Holy Spirit and charismatic movements!
So as I dont see him in RCC ore many protestant doctrines.
But God is behind his word!
 

VCO

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You are taking one account of what the apostles did, and discounting what Paul, also an apostle, did.

Speaking in tongues is speaking in tongues. Other people being present who understand is other people being present who understand. Those aren't the same thing. The gift of 'divers tongues' is an ability to speak in divers tongues, or one of those divers tongues. It is not the ability to make people appear who understand the language.

There is no evidence that people were present who understood the languages in Acts 10 or Acts 19, and I Corinthians 14 even plainly tells us when any man speaks in tongues 'no man understandeth him.' We know this was 'the real McCoy' in Corinth because Paul wanted the utterances interpreted to edify others.

How would translating fake tongues edify others?

There you go with that blind trust, unwilling to genuinely TEST THE SPIRITS.

The Vast majority of them have all been deceived into thinking what they have is of the Holy Spirit:


Matthew 24:24 (GWT)
[SUP]24 [/SUP] False messiahs and false prophets will appear. They will work spectacular, miraculous signs and do wonderful things
to deceive, if possible, even those whom God has chosen.

2 Timothy 3:13 (HCSB)
[SUP]13 [/SUP] Evil people and impostors will become worse, deceiving and being deceived.

1 Timothy 4:1-2 (NKJV)
[SUP]1 [/SUP] Now the Spirit expressly says that in latter times some will depart from the faith, giving heed to deceiving spirits and doctrines of demons,
[SUP]2 [/SUP] speaking lies in hypocrisy, having their own conscience seared with a hot iron,

YES I take into account what Paul did, and Peter:

Acts 10:44-48 (HCSB)
[SUP]44 [/SUP] While Peter was still speaking these words, the Holy Spirit came down on all those who heard the message.
[SUP]45 [/SUP] The circumcised believers who had come with Peter were astounded because the gift of the Holy Spirit had been poured out on the Gentiles also.
[SUP]46 [/SUP] For they heard them speaking in ⌊other⌋ languages and declaring the greatness of God. Then Peter responded,
{Jews did not believe the Gentiles could receive the Holy Spirit, in the INDENITCAL WAY THE DISCIPLES DID. Therefore they were those unbelievers of that fact who heard in their own "dialektos" what Cornelius and his family ACTUALLY SAID. }
[SUP]47 [/SUP] “Can anyone withhold water and prevent these people from being baptized, who have received the Holy Spirit just as we have? {That is saying they received the Holy Spirit in the IDENTICAL WAY the Disciple Received HIM.}
[SUP]48 [/SUP] And he commanded them to be baptized in the name of Jesus Christ. Then they asked him to stay for a few days.

2 Corinthians 12:11-12 (ESV)
[SUP]11 [/SUP] I have been a fool! You forced me to it, for I ought to have been commended by you. For I was not at all inferior to these super-apostles, even though I am nothing.
[SUP]12 [/SUP] The signs of a true apostle were performed among you with utmost patience, with signs and wonders and mighty works.


NOTHING LESS THAN WHAT THE APOSTLES DID, is the TRUE Signs and Miracle Gifts.

YES that world is full of Diverse Tongues {LANGUAGES} which are always LANGUAGES and NEVER ecstatic utterances {babbling}.


Matthew 6:7 (NIV)
[SUP]7 [/SUP] And when you pray, do not keep on babbling like pagans, for they think they will be heard because of their many words.
 
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presidente

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VCO,

You ignored the points I made from scripture in your reply. The verses you refer to do not contradict or disprove the verses I referred to. You also did not answer my question:




I Corinthians 14 even plainly tells us when any man speaks in tongues 'no man understandeth him.' We know this was 'the real McCoy' in Corinth because Paul wanted the utterances interpreted to edify others.

How would translating fake tongues edify others?
 

presidente

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May 29, 2013
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[SUP]46 [/SUP]For they heard them speaking in ⌊other⌋ languages and declaring the greatness of God. Then Peter responded,
{Jews did not believe the Gentiles could receive the Holy Spirit, in the INDENITCAL WAY THE DISCIPLES DID. Therefore they were those unbelievers of that fact who heard in their own "dialektos" what Cornelius and his family ACTUALLY SAID. }
[SUP]47 [/SUP]“Can anyone withhold water and prevent these people from being baptized, who have received the Holy Spirit just as we have?{That is saying they received the Holy Spirit in the IDENTICAL WAY the Disciple Received HIM.}
You seem to be interpreting the passage almost the same way Oneness Pentecostals translate it. Speaking in tongues was not the 'way' the apostles received the Holy Ghost. It was a result, an after-effect.

Other people standing around who understood speaking in tongues was not how the apostles receivd the Holy Ghost any more than being in Jerusalem, being Jewish, or being on the day of Pentecost was how they received it. Your argument here is really weak.

We don't know if the speaking in tongues of the apostles was ever done in an ecstatic state. We do know from scripture that both Peter and Paul had visions. So did John. We do not know if they spoke in tongues when this is going on.

Certain scholars call speaking in tongues 'ecstatic utterances.' The rank and file Pentecostal or Chairsmatic does not. I think it is an inaccurate term using any commonly understood definition of 'ecstatic', since one can be ecstatic without speaking in tongues and one can speak in tongues without being ecstatic.

Insisting that speakign in tongues is speaking in languages is a beating the straw man. I agree with that.
 
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VCO

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VCO,

You ignored the points I made from scripture in your reply. The verses you refer to do not contradict or disprove the verses I referred to. You also did not answer my question:
HE was giving you a reason NOT TO BABBLE like the Pagans, that was an ongoing problem in the Church of Corinth because SO MANY used to be pagans. Paul throughout the first letter to the Corinithians is CORRECTING KNOWN PROBLEMS in the Church.

1 Corinthians 12:2-3 (NIV)
[SUP]2 [/SUP] You know that when you were pagans, somehow or other you were influenced and led astray to mute idols. {Babbling Tongues were common place in the Pagan Worship Centers, especially in the Worship of Apollo. There were THREE worship centers of Appollo within a couple blocks of where I think the Church at Corinth was located.
[SUP]3 [/SUP] Therefore {Remember what the THEREFORE is THERE FOR.} I tell you that no one who is speaking by the Spirit of God says, "Jesus be cursed," and no one can say, "Jesus is Lord," except by the Holy Spirit.


1 Corinthians 14:3-4 (NIV)
[SUP]3 [/SUP] But everyone who prophesies {means to proclaim the word of GOD to others without error, which was EXTREMELY important when in that age, almost NO ONE could afford a PERSONAL copy of the Word of GOD.} speaks to men for their strengthening, encouragement and comfort.
[SUP]4 [/SUP] One who speaks in a tongue edifies himself; but one who prophesies edifies the church.


ONCE AGAIN PAUL IS GIVING YOU A REASON NOT TO USE BABBLING TONGUES like the PAGANS.

WHY? BECAUSE HE ALREADY FORBADE EDIFYING SELF:


1 Corinthians 10:23-24 (NASB)
[SUP]23 [/SUP] All things are lawful, but not all things are profitable. All things are lawful, but not all things edify.
[SUP]24 [/SUP] Let no one seek his own . . ., but that of his neighbor.
{Where the three dots were, for some unknown reason the NASB Translators chose to insert the word "good" there in italics, which MEANS that word is not in the original language manuscripts used to translate from. Adding that word only CONFUSED the meaning that GOD inspired Paul to write, and as you can see, it MADE perfect sense the way GOD INSPIRED IT.}
 
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VCO

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You seem to be interpreting the passage almost the same way Oneness Pentecostals translate it. Speaking in tongues was not the 'way' the apostles received the Holy Ghost. It was a result, an after-effect.

Other people standing around who understood speaking in tongues was not how the apostles receivd the Holy Ghost any more than being in Jerusalem, being Jewish, or being on the day of Pentecost was how they received it. Your argument here is really weak.

We don't know if the speaking in tongues of the apostles was ever done in an ecstatic state. We do know from scripture that both Peter and Paul had visions. So did John. We do not know if they spoke in tongues when this is going on.

Certain scholars call speaking in tongues 'ecstatic utterances.' The rank and file Pentecostal or Chairsmatic does not. I think it is an inaccurate term using any commonly understood definition of 'ecstatic', since one can be ecstatic without speaking in tongues and one can speak in tongues without being ecstatic.

Insisting that speakign in tongues is speaking in languages is a beating the straw man. I agree with that.


Not even close to Oneness. We interpret it LITERALLY. ECSTATIC UTTERANCES never applies to the genuine TONGUES, is my whole point. However, it does apply to most of the Charismatic experiences, and TOTALLY to all of what the pagans do. As for John, I think GOD called his human spirit LITERALLY up to heaven into the future so HE could literally show HIM what will take place, but that is a personal opinion, and I will not push the point. Certain words used by John, seem outside the realm of a Vision to me. Such as "COME UP HERE." Paul too, used that possibility as a real possibility in his experience:


2 Corinthians 12:2-4 (HCSB)
[SUP]2 [/SUP] I know a man in Christ {I believe Paul is talking about himself.} who was caught up into the third heaven 14 years ago. Whether he was in the body or out of the body, I don’t know, God knows. {Notice Paul knows it was a real event and NOT a vision. Which I believe is identical to what John experienced.}
[SUP]3 [/SUP] I know that this man—whether in the body or out of the body I don’t know, God knows—
[SUP]4 [/SUP] was caught up into paradise. He heard inexpressible words, which a man is not allowed to speak.


But on the TONGUES issue, I believe my argument, is absolutely ROCK SOLID.
 

presidente

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HE was giving you a reason NOT TO BABBLE like the Pagans, that was an ongoing problem in the Church of Corinth because SO MANY used to be pagans. Paul throughout the first letter to the Corinithians is CORRECTING KNOWN PROBLEMS in the Church.
First of all, you use a dynamic equivalence of Matthew 6:7, arguing your doctrine off the turn of phrase the translator uses. This is a word used once in Greek literature. You assume that Matthew 6:7 is talking about what you equate with 'speaking in tongues'. Then you assume this was how the pagans regularly prayed. Plutarch, a first century priest of the false god Apollo, wrote that the Oracle of Delphi could give her prophecies in prose and they didn't have to be in fine poetry. This argues against your theories about Apollo priests teaching people to babble.

This is a quote from Wikipedia on Matthew 6:7 taken from:
https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Matthew_6:7
The term translated as "vain repetitions" is battalogein. This word is unknown outside this verse appearing in none of the contemporary literature. It might be linked to the Greek term for babbling, or it might also be derived from the Hebrew batel, vain. It is often assumed to be a related to the word polugein, and thus a reference to a large quantity of words.[SUP][1][/SUP]This verse moves away from condemning the hypocrites to condemning the Gentiles. Matthew never makes clear who these Gentiles are, though pagan prayers to Baal and other gods are mentioned in the Old Testament. In Luke's version of this verse, found at Luke 11:2, it is not the Gentiles who are condemned but "the rest of men."
France notes that in this era Gentile prayer was portrayed as repeated incantations that had to be perfectly recited, but where the spirit and understanding of the prayer was secondary.[SUP][2][/SUP] Fowler states that the Jews believed the pagans needed to incessantly repeat their prayers, because their false gods would not answer them. The followers of the true God had no need to repeat their prayers as God would hear them the first time.[SUP][3][/SUP]Schweizer presents an alternate view. He does not feel battalogeo is a reference to repetition, but to nonsense. He argues that the Jews of that era felt that the pagans had forgotten the true name of God, and that their prayers were thus filled with long lists of meaningless words in an attempt to ensure the true name of God would at some point be mentioned.[SUP][4][/SUP]
This verse is not generally seen as a condemnation of repetitive prayer. Jesus himself repeats prayers, such as at Matthew 26:44, and in two verses he gives a prayer to be repeated. Rather this verse is read as a condemnation of rote prayer without understanding of why one is praying. Protestants such as Martin Luther have used this verse to attack Catholic prayer practices such as the use of rosaries.[SUP][5][/SUP]
 

presidente

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HE was giving you a reason NOT TO BABBLE like the Pagans, that was an ongoing problem in the Church of Corinth because SO MANY used to be pagans.
Your assertions here do not fit the argument Paul makes in I Corinthians 14. How do you get that out of this passage?

2 For he that speaketh in an unknown tongue speaketh not unto men, but unto God: for no man understandeth him; howbeit in the spirit he speaketh mysteries.
3 But he that prophesieth speaketh unto men to edification, and exhortation, and comfort.
4 He that speaketh in an unknown tongue edifieth himself; but he that prophesieth edifieth the church.
5 I would that ye all spake with tongues but rather that ye prophesied: for greater is he that prophesieth than he that speaketh with tongues, except he interpret, that the church may receive edifying.

Let's break it down:
2 For he that speaketh in an unknown tongue speaketh not unto men, but unto God: for no man understandeth him; howbeit in the spirit he speaketh mysteries.
3 But he that prophesieth speaketh unto men to edification, and exhortation, and comfort.
4 He that speaketh in an unknown tongue edifieth himself; but he that prophesieth edifieth the church.
5 I would that ye all spake with tongues but rather that ye prophesied: for greater is he that prophesieth than he that speaketh with tongues, except he interpret, that the church may receive edifying.

Paul says that he who speaks in tongues speaks mysteries with his spirit and that no man understands him. He says he edifies himself. Then he says that wanted them all to speak in tongues.

How is this calling speaking in tongues pagan babbling? Why would Paul wish the Corinthians would speak in tongues if it were pagan babbling. That makes no sense at all. Why would Paul later argue for the importance of speaking in tongues (mentioned briefly in verse 5, above) if what they were doing was speaking in pagan babblings?

Notice the arguments
he that speaks in tongues edifies himself----------> I would that ye all spake with tongues
he who prophesies edifies the church -----------> but rather that ye prophesied.

Speaking in tongues and edifying yourself is desirable. Prophesying and edifying the church is better.

Edification is not a bad thing in these verses. Speaking in tongues is not a bad thing. It is not a pagan thing. Paul introduces 'divers tongues' as a manifestation of the Spirit in chapter 12. There is no reference to pagan tongues in the epistle.

Paul throughout the first letter to the Corinithians is CORRECTING KNOWN PROBLEMS in the Church.
True, but that does not mean we should ignore what he is saying or ignore the doctrine that he is teaching.

1 Corinthians 12:2-3 (NIV)
[SUP]2 [/SUP] You know that when you were pagans, somehow or other you were influenced and led astray to mute idols. {Babbling Tongues were common place in the Pagan Worship Centers, especially in the Worship of Apollo. There were THREE worship centers of Appollo within a couple blocks of where I think the Church at Corinth was located.
Show some evidence to prove that fact that babbling was a common thing among Apollo worshippers, particularly among the 'laity.' You wrote way back when that the priests of Apollo would tell people to "say 'batta batta'." I asked you for a source. I do not think you ever gave me one. This sounds like guesswork, if not from you, from whoever you got the idea from. Is there an ancient text that testifies to this?

Some commentators on the topic might assert that the oracle of Delphi spoke in gibberish. Do you have any quotes from the commentators, and what is their source? Hundreds of years before, Heroditus said she spoke in hexameter, a complicated poetic form. Plutarch was a priest of Apollo in the first century who said she may also speak in prose as well. It is clear he is talking about intelligible speech. Where is the evidence for babbling in the Apollo religion in the first place?

And if you have evidence, where is the evidence of it happening in the Corinthian church? Paul hints at no such thing. No statement of Paul, at all, that mentions speaking in tongues could reasonably be interpreted to refer to pagan tongues. Just go verse by verse. None of them fit.

I believe your theory comes from the liberal modernist types in the 1800's who didn't believe in miracles and did not really believe the Bible. They tried to explain miracles in terms of naturalistic phenomenon and treat Old and New Testament practices as variants of the religious practices among pagans. So speaking in tongues gets explained away as the same sort of thing the pagans were doing, as opposed to something supernatural. A few modern evangelicals, looking for arguments against speaking in tongues, repeat their arguments and now we have people who are otherwise evangelical repeating these liberal ideas on forums. Where is your evidence from scripture for pagan tongues in the actual church meetings in Corinth?

[SUP]3 [/SUP] Therefore {Remember what the THEREFORE is THERE FOR.} I tell you that no one who is speaking by the Spirit of God says, "Jesus be cursed," and no one can say, "Jesus is Lord," except by the Holy Spirit.
Before he said 'no one who is speaking by the Spirit of God....' he referred to their pagan past. After 'no one can say, "Jesus is Lord" except by the Holy Spirit' he tells them about manifestations of the Spirit. 'Divers tongues' is identified as a manifestation of the Spirit. This is clarified in the text. Now show me the passage which talks about the fake pagan tongues, because the speaking in tongues in this passage is a manifestation of the Spirit.


1 Corinthians 14:3-4 (NIV)
[SUP]3 [/SUP] But everyone who prophesies {means to proclaim the word of GOD to others without error, which was EXTREMELY important when in that age, almost NO ONE could afford a PERSONAL copy of the Word of GOD.} speaks to men for their strengthening, encouragement and comfort.
The lack of copies of the complete canon does not define the meaning of the word 'prophesy.' Peter described Old Testament prophesying as holy men of old 'spake as they were moved by the Holy Ghost' or it might be translated 'carried along by the Holy Ghost.' The say word for 'prophesying' is used to refer to what New Testament saints were doing when they prophesied.

Prophesying is revelatory in nature, which we know because Paul writes, 'if a revelation cometh to one sitting by'. His hypothetical example about prophesying is about all prophesying the secrets of a man's heart.
[SUP]4 [/SUP] One who speaks in a tongue edifies himself; but one who prophesies edifies the church.

ONCE AGAIN PAUL IS GIVING YOU A REASON NOT TO USE BABBLING TONGUES like the PAGANS.

WHY? BECAUSE HE ALREADY FORBADE EDIFYING SELF:
No he doesn't. You try to squeeze that out of a verse about not seeking your own. Paul isn't saying we can't eat. Eating edifies (builds us up) physically. Edification is a good thing in I Corinthians 14. Paul says that he who speaks in tongues edifies himself, and concludes "I would that ye all spake with tongues. He says that he who prophesies edifies the church and concludes 'but rather that ye prophesied.'

Edifying oneself is good. Edifying the church is better.

1 Corinthians 10:23-24 (NASB)
[SUP]23 [/SUP] All things are lawful, but not all things are profitable. All things are lawful, but not all things edify.
[SUP]24 [/SUP] Let no one seek his own . . ., but that of his neighbor.
You are assuming selfish motives on the part of those who pray in tongues. The Corinthians might have been giving thanks in tongues because they wanted to give thanks well: 'for thou verily giveth thanks well.' Paul does not attribute their misuse of speaking in tongues to selfish motives, but implies it is due to a childish understanding. They either did not know and understand, or had not thought through the issues Paul raised in I Corinthians 14.

Is reading the Bible alone beneficial for you personally? Does it edify you? If so, is it forbidden? Let's not just try to use verses as a polemic against speaking in tongues. Let's consider how our interpretations actually should be applied to our own lives.
 

presidente

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wolfwint wrote,
Mostly because of different understanding and meaning of the scripture. The pentecostal movement claim there teaching is from the Holy Spirit himself! Because the second baptism with the gift of speaking in tongues can not be done through human beiings. So it is the Holy Spirit who is behind the movement they claims, this means God is behind. The consequence of this is, that all christians which are not following this doctrine are false!!!!!!!
As far as doctrine goes, Pentecostals say they believe this because they say the Bible teaches it. They use a certain hermenuetical approach to arrive at this conclusion (It happened this way here, here, and here, so that is the way it is supposed to happen.)

As far as your other objection goes, Biblically, what reason do you have for believing that the Spirit cannot fill and empower them and enable them to speak in tongues today? I don't have any problem at all with someone being filled with the Spirit and speaking in tongues. What I question is whether everyone who is empowered by the Spirit speaks in tongues. If someone makes a doctrine of his experience (and the experience of the apostles and a few others) that doesn't make his experience false.
 

wolfwint

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wolfwint wrote,


As far as doctrine goes, Pentecostals say they believe this because they say the Bible teaches it. They use a certain hermenuetical approach to arrive at this conclusion (It happened this way here, here, and here, so that is the way it is supposed to happen.)

As far as your other objection goes, Biblically, what reason do you have for believing that the Spirit cannot fill and empower them and enable them to speak in tongues today? I don't have any problem at all with someone being filled with the Spirit and speaking in tongues. What I question is whether everyone who is empowered by the Spirit speaks in tongues. If someone makes a doctrine of his experience (and the experience of the apostles and a few others) that doesn't make his experience false.

Well, a view points i would mention:
1. In acts 2,8,9,10and19. I suppose the coming from the Holy Spirit into a person and the speaking in tongues as sign, are if
you read the context for the people around (mostly believers ore jews) for to understand that the Holy Spirit would given
to them and they are also saved if the believe to Jesus.(till this time Jews believed that the Messajah was only for them)
2. I suppose the same speaking in tongues is meant in the above mentioned Bible verses as it meant in acts 2. That means
the people heared the believers speak n their languages.
3. Speaking in tongues in 1. Cor 12 ore 14 sound to me as ag gift which is given like all other gifts to. Only one gift among
others.
4. in entire NT I find no connection between speaking in tongues and empowered with the Holy Spirit. In case of Corithians
and their moral and spirituell situation. They seemed not very holy in their livestile)
5. My personell expieirince with people from assembly of God in Ludwigshafen in germany was that they told me I should
search and ask for to speak in tongues. They dont told me that if I am filled with the Holy Spirit I will speak in tongues
ore I will be empowered with the Holy Spirit and as sign I will speak in tongues.
6. I believe that the Holy Spirit is working in all christians, and he makes no different in denominations. I rose up among non
pentecostals and non charismatics. And you are telling me they all are not empowered with the Holy Spirit because they
dont speak in tongues. This teaching I do not find in the bible.
7. This why I meant if the pentecostals/charismatics are rigth with this doctrine, then all others are wrong!!! all others
before 1900 and all who said no to the pentecostal doctrine about the Holy Spirit.
8. A doctrine which is not taught in the bible is wrong, doesnt matter which expierience we are making.
 
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You seem to be interpreting the passage almost the same way Oneness Pentecostals translate it. Speaking in tongues was not the 'way' the apostles received the Holy Ghost. It was a result, an after-effect.
Tongues are a sign to those who "believe not" (no faith) . Prophecy which Peter spoke ,as He was moved by the Holy Spirit.This shows us Peter spoke in his own language, as God's gift he interpreted into the language of many different others.

In the end it is more hearing in tongues. Or called the hearing of faith. Peter’s language never changed from his native tongue.

Other people standing around who understood speaking in tongues was not how the apostles received the Holy Ghost any more than being in Jerusalem, being Jewish, or being on the day of Pentecost was how they received it. Your argument here is really weak.
That is how the signs seekers see it. And is why they seek after signs as a way of giving themselves a living hope they are proving they have the Holy Spirit. They have no confidence in the scriptures to provide that witness not seen to man.

Seeing it is Christ alone who does witness to our spirit that we are sons of God as those led by the Spirit of Christ (not seen ).

He gives us the confidence to cry out Abba father . It does not come by some work we could perform. (making sounds, going to church, reading the Bible, splashing H20 on ones flesh(etc.)

Sign seekers have no assurance of salvation.

We don't know if the speaking in tongues of the apostles was ever done in an ecstatic state. We do know from scripture that both Peter and Paul had visions. So did John. We do not know if they spoke in tongues when this is going on.

The apostles spoke in their own language,and as a gift of God to those who received it as prophecy, God revealed it into their language.

Certain scholars call speaking in tongues 'ecstatic utterances.' The rank and file Pentecostal or Chairsmatic does not. I think it is an inaccurate term using any commonly understood definition of 'ecstatic', since one can be ecstatic without speaking in tongues and one can speak in tongues without being ecstatic.
It becomes an ecstatic (thrill) as a wonder, (faith principle) with words without meaning to them..What we perform outwardly is not interpreted as a wonder, as source of faith by something we could do outwardly.

Insisting that speaking in tongues is speaking in languages is a beating the straw man. I agree with that.
Again because it is prophecy, the word of God, which comes as he moves men, when others hear it and understand we can be sure God has done the interpreting.

If there was no other person there that did not understand the langue that Peter spoke. God not would not of performed it.

The prophet would be silent.

No such thing as a outward sign gift.We walk by the faith of Christ which alone comes from hearing God .He who began the good work of salvation in us gives us all the confidence we need.
 
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presidente

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Tongues are a sign to those who "believe not" (no faith) . Prophecy which Peter spoke ,as He was moved by the Holy Spirit.This shows us Peter spoke in his own language, as God's gift he interpreted into the language of many different others.

In the end it is more hearing in tongues. Or called the hearing of faith. Peter’s language never changed from his native tongue.
Acts 2 says they spoke in other languages as the Spirit gave them utterance.

That is how the signs seekers see it. And is why they seek after signs as a way of giving themselves a living hope they are proving they have the Holy Spirit. They have no confidence in the scriptures to provide that witness not seen to man.
Do you claim to be omniscient, or do you claim to be clairvoyant based on some kind of demonic or psychic power? Why do you pretend to know all the motivations of the hearts of men unilaterally?

I do not know what would motivate you to judge the apostles as you do. The apostles asked Jesus for the sign of His coming. They asked God to do signs and wonders for Jesus sake. Why would you assume that they had no assurance of salvation, or that they wanted to prove that they had the Holy Ghost? Why don't you just stick with what the Bible teaches instead of making these things up?

Seeing it is Christ alone who does witness to our spirit that we are sons of God as those led by the Spirit of Christ (not seen ).
The Spirit bears witness with our spirit that we are the children of God. There are also a number of manifestations of the Spirit. These two facts do not contradict.

Sign seekers have no assurance of salvation.
The apostles asked Jesus for the sign of His coming and prayed that God would do signs and wonders. Why would you assume that they have no assurance of salvation?

By what means do you claim to have this knowledge? Do you claim to be omniscient like God and to be able to know the apostles' hearts? Do you claim some kind of psychic ability? What is your basis for your assertions? I can't find these statements in the Bible.
 

VCO

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. . .
Speaking in tongues is speaking in tongues. Other people being present who understand is other people being present who understand. Those aren't the same thing. The gift of 'divers tongues' is an ability to speak in divers tongues, or one of those divers tongues. It is not the ability to make people appear who understand the language.
. . .

How would translating fake tongues edify others?

Like I said quite awhile ago. NO ONE IS PUTTING THE INTERPRETERS to the TEST of the SPIRITS, to see if He truly is functioning out of the Holy Spirit of GOD. Decades ago, a group of students from Dallas Theological Seminary put the Interpreter of the largest Charismatic Church. One of them memorized the 23rd Psalm in Hebrew, and on the Sunday morning that they chose to go to that Church, they waited until after two members of that Church had spoken in Tongues and a single Interpreter had stood and gave a very biblical interpretation. THEN the Dallas Theological Student stood and quoted his memorized 23rd Psalm in Hebrew, and once again the same Interpreter stood and gave a Very Biblical sounding interpretation; BUT NOT ONE WORD OF IT WAS FROM THE 23RD PSALM. I am sure that Interpreter really thought he had the True Gift of Interpretations, but He GENUINELY had a COUNTERFEIT.

As long as you guys remain unwilling to continually Test the Spirits periodically, you have left room for the minds of unwitting men or women to unintentionally counterfeit the miracle signs; or even for the devil or demons to FILL the congregation with COUNTERFEITS. YOU ALL NEED TO LEARN TO TEST THE SPIRITS.


1 John 4:1 (ESV)
[SUP]1 [/SUP] Beloved, do not believe every spirit, but test the spirits to see whether they are from God, for many false prophets have gone out into the world.
 

presidente

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Like I said quite awhile ago. NO ONE IS PUTTING THE INTERPRETERS to the TEST of the SPIRITS, to see if He truly is functioning out of the Holy Spirit of GOD. Decades ago, a group of students from Dallas Theological Seminary put the Interpreter of the largest Charismatic Church. One of them memorized the 23rd Psalm in Hebrew, and on the Sunday morning that they chose to go to that Church, they waited until after two members of that Church had spoken in Tongues and a single Interpreter had stood and gave a very biblical interpretation. THEN the Dallas Theological Student stood and quoted his memorized 23rd Psalm in Hebrew, and once again the same Interpreter stood and gave a Very Biblical sounding interpretation; BUT NOT ONE WORD OF IT WAS FROM THE 23RD PSALM. I am sure that Interpreter really thought he had the True Gift of Interpretations, but He GENUINELY had a COUNTERFEIT.



That is not a logical conclusion based on the information presented in this bit of hearsay. The two who rose could have ignored the seminary students deception and just given prophecies. Did the content of the prophecies happen to include statements such as 'Thou shalt not put the LORD thy God to the test?" What was the content of the message?

How is it in order for men to stand and speak in a foreign language without interpretation in such a context?
 
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Acts 2 says they spoke in other languages as the Spirit gave them utterance.
The word utterance is in not a word of everyday speech but one "belonging to dignified and elevated discourse" (prophecy) as moved by God, no credit goes to the one He moves.

The word said below speaks of prophecy. It is the same Greek word as Utterance used three time in the scriptures. once as the word said

Act 2:14 But Peter, standing up with the eleven, lifted up his voice, and said unto them, Ye men of Judaea, and all ye that dwell at Jerusalem, be this known unto you, and hearken to my words:

Again His words not that of the prophets.

Act 2:1 And when the day of Pentecost was fully come, they were all with one accord in one place.And suddenly there came a sound from heaven as of a rushing mighty wind, and it filled all the house where they were sitting. And there appeared unto them cloven tongues like as of fire, and it sat upon each of them.And they were all filled with the Holy Ghost, and began to speak with other tongues, as the Spirit gave them utterance.

Gave them ability by giving them His understanding in their own language .

Cloven tongues like as of fire is God showing his approval .Each that did speak in their own language where heard in different language ,the hearers native tongue, as the Holy spirit gave them His interpretation. .

And there were dwelling at Jerusalem Jews, devout men, out of every nation under heaven. Now when this was noised abroad, the multitude came together, and were confounded, because that every man heard them speak in his own language.Act 2:5

They did not hear each other in respect to their own (Jews) language as if a person could speak more than one language at a time That would great confession. Like the tower of Babel. It’s the hearing of faith as the Holy Spirit revealed his prophecy as they spoke their own language .

And they were all amazed and marvelled, saying one to another, Behold, are not all these which speak Galilaeans? And how hear we every man in our own tongue, wherein we were born? Act 2:7

How could someone speak in the languages of Ten nations at the same time.Amazed and marveled is in respect to that not seen, the faith principle.

It does not say they spoke in other languages but heard it(prophecy) in their own.
 
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Do you claim to be omniscient, or do you claim to be clairvoyant based on some kind of demonic or psychic power? Why do you pretend to know all the motivations of the hearts of men unilaterally?

No I am trusting what the word says. All prophecy is sealed up till the end of time to include Tongues one of the manners he did bring new revelations. We have the whole word of God with no laws missing by which we could know him more .adequately.

Its natural man that seeks after signs in order to give themselves confidence of the Hope of the Holy Spirit.

I do not know what would motivate you to judge the apostles as you do. The apostles asked Jesus for the sign of His coming.
No one is Judging the sent ones(apostles)

He gave them signs like that of the last days, just as in the day of Noah . Not a particular sign in respect to the last day. He just uses last day, the day of the second resurrection and final judgement day the end of this corrupted world

They asked God to do signs and wonders for Jesus sake.
The Jews sought after sign to given to themselves. Signs are for those who not believe prophecy (faithless) prophecy for those who believe (have faith) . Blessed are they that hear the word of God ......(prophecy ) sign are for those who rebel and have no confidence unless the perform a work outwardly.

And it came to pass, as he spake these things, a certain woman of the company lifted up her voice, and said unto him, Blessed is the womb that bare thee, and the paps which thou hast sucked.But he said, Yea rather, blessed are they that hear the word of God, and keep it.And when the people were gathered thick together, he began to say, This is an evil generation: they seek a sign; and there shall no sign be given it, but the sign of Jonas the prophet.
Luk 11:28

Why would you assume that they had no assurance of salvation, or that they wanted to prove that they had the Holy Ghost? Why don't you just stick with what the Bible teaches instead of making these things up?

Those who did seek after a sign are shown as faithless. No faith, the unseen, eternal
John 20:27 Then saith he to Thomas, Reach hither thy finger, and behold my hands; and reach hither thy hand, and thrust it into my side: and be not faithless, but believing.
Do you claim to be omniscient, or do you claim to be clairvoyant based on some kind of demonic or psychic power? Why do you pretend to know all the motivations of the hearts of men unilaterally?

No I am trusting what the word says. All prophecy is sealed up till the end of time to include one of the manners he did bring new revelation.

I do not know what would motivate you to judge the apostles as you do. The apostles asked Jesus for the sign of His coming.
The apostles stand on the same fallow ground as any believer.

He gave them signs leading to the last days, just as in the day of Noah .He will come as a thief in the night. Not a particular sign but in respect to the last day. He just uses last day, the day of the second resurrection and final judgement day, the end of this corrupted world.

They asked God to do signs and wonders for Jesus sake.
Not wonders the faith principle, just signs

The Jews sought after sign given by and to their own selves. Signs are for those who not believe prophecy (faithless) prophecy for those who believe (have faith) . blessed are they that hear the word of God ......(prophecy ) sign are for those who rebel and have no confidence unless the perform a work, making the cross to no effect.

Why would you assume that they had no assurance of salvation, or that they wanted to prove that they had the Holy Ghost? Why don't you just stick with what the Bible teaches instead of making these things up?
I cannot see into another heart. By performing that outward is how sign seekers get there confidence .Other wise why would they try and speak words that have no meaning? .We have His confidence.

Those who did seek after a sign are shown as faithless. No faith, the unseen, eternal . Their confidence is in the flesh , not walking by faith (the unseen)

John 20:27 Then saith he to Thomas, Reach hither thy finger, and behold my hands; and reach hither thy hand, and thrust it into my side: and be not faithless, but believing.
 

presidente

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The word utterance is in not a word of everyday speech but one "belonging to dignified and elevated discourse" (prophecy) as moved by God, no credit goes to the one He moves.
Why don't you address the point I made? The Bible says they spoke in other languages, not that they didn't speak in foreign languages.

The word said below speaks of prophecy. It is the same Greek word as Utterance used three time in the scriptures. once as the word said

Act 2:14 But Peter, standing up with the eleven, lifted up his voice, and said unto them, Ye men of Judaea, and all ye that dwell at Jerusalem, be this known unto you, and hearken to my words:

Again His words not that of the prophets.

Act 2:1 And when the day of Pentecost was fully come, they were all with one accord in one place.And suddenly there came a sound from heaven as of a rushing mighty wind, and it filled all the house where they were sitting. And there appeared unto them cloven tongues like as of fire, and it sat upon each of them.And they were all filled with the Holy Ghost, and began to speak with other tongues, as the Spirit gave them utterance.

Gave them ability by giving them His understanding in their own language .
They were speaking in other languages. The people heard them speaking in other languages. These disciples were not speaking their own language. You could argue they were speaking another language, and then people heard them speak in some language other than the language they were actually speaking in, but that is a rather unnecessary argument.

Cloven tongues like as of fire is God showing his approval .
Do you think the tongues of fire were a 'sign' of God's approval? Do you think their presence is an indication that the apostles were doing a work (by having a tongue of fire on their head) because they had no assurance of salvation?

I know my question is nonsense, but this is the kind of stuff you write over and over again in your posts.

Each that did speak in their own language where heard in different language ,the hearers native tongue,
The Bible says they were speaking in other tongues.

as the Holy spirit gave them His interpretation. .
The text says as the Spirit gave them utterance.

And there were dwelling at Jerusalem Jews, devout men, out of every nation under heaven. Now when this was noised abroad, the multitude came together, and were confounded, because that every man heard them speak in his own language.Act 2:5
If I speak in your native language, whatever it is, and your ears work and I'm in earshot, you will hear me speak in your own language.

The passage does not say 'for they heard them speak in languages they were not speaking in.' It does not say that their lips were moving differently from their mouths like a dubbed martial arts movie on A&E.

They did not hear each other in respect to their own (Jews) language as if a person could speak more than one language at a time That would great confession.
There were up to 120 speakers and about what... 16 or 17 languages? That's doable. Even those who insist that only 12 speak in tongues would have to concede if it went on for a while, that some of them could have spoken two languages.

And they were all amazed and marvelled, saying one to another, Behold, are not all these which speak Galilaeans? And how hear we every man in our own tongue, wherein we were born? Act 2:7
If they spoke in the languages of those people, those people would likely have heard their own languages. The passage says they were speaking in other languages. The Spirit gave them utterance... to do what? To speak in other languages. It does not say in this verse that they spoke in their own language as the Spirit gave them utterance.

It does not say they spoke in other languages but heard it(prophecy) in their own.
Yes it does. You just quoted it in this verse before you contradicted what you quoted:

Acts 2 says they spoke in other languages as the Spirit gave them utterance.

The fact that the Spirit gave them utterance does not take away from the fact that it plainly says that they spoke in other languages.
 

presidente

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VCO,

In regard to your interpretation of I Corinthians 14, do you believe that interpreting fake tongues that imitate Apollow worship would edify the congregation? How is this possible? Why would Paul advocate interpreting tongues if they were fake or pagan?

Specifically which verses do you believe refer to pagan or fake tongues?