What about the "old fashioned" and even "archaic" language of the King James Bible?

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C

cfultz3

Guest
#21
Re: What about the "old fashioned" and even "archaic" language of the King James Bibl

You confused Option #4 with what came AFTER this. The so called 'Fundamentalist View" is wrong. There are NO provable errors in the King James Bible. I am arguing for an infallible Bible you can hold in your hands and read. Your position is that there IS NO infallible Bible in ANY language, and never WAS one. Right? Please answer the question for us. Do you or do you not believe in a hold it in your hands and read and believe every word is the infallible words of God type of Bible or not? Yes or No? IF Yes, then can you kindly show us a copy of it? Thanks.
I stand correct on this part. But, are you absolutely sure the KJV has no errors?

As you clearly state my position without even asking or me having said so, you assuredly say that my "position is that there IS NO infallible Bible in ANY language, and never WAS one". Then, from that absolute assertion you placed in the reader's mind, you go and ask me if it is true. Either you know my position or you will need to ask without presumed knowledge.

For us? Who is this us? Do you come to discuss or find fault? Are we face to face on some battlefield to rid us of our opponents?

To your question which started out as an assertion: We are given the Unction and we have no need for any to tell us the Truth. But yet, placing our faith in a man's translation is about as trustworthy as placing our faith in the theology of a man's thoughts that we call a particular religion (sects of a religion). So, as for me, I will place my confidence in the Word who leads to Truth and not in any particular translation of the written Word.

But then again, I must insist that those who translated the KJV must have had something from which to had translated their version. I am sure that a little search would help one to find that indeed this authorized KJV 1611 was a third attempt in translation approved by the English Church Authority. Do we suppose that the third attempt was the infallible word of God? Or maybe the second? Perhaps, the first?
 
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cfultz3

Guest
#22
Re: What about the "old fashioned" and even "archaic" language of the King James Bibl

bad storm coming in....need to get off from computer awhile....be back soon....
 
J

JHM

Guest
#23
Re: What about the "old fashioned" and even "archaic" language of the King James Bibl

Actually the King James Version is one of the more "error riddled" versions available. Read the forward to the Revised Standard Version, and you will learn about the origin of the King James.

I might add that I have 7 different versions of the Bible, and have come to regard the Jerusalem Bible as being the most accurate overall, the New Revised Standard Version as being the second most accurate, and the Darby Translation as being the third most accurate.
 
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Huckleberry

Senior Member
Aug 25, 2013
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#24
Re: What about the "old fashioned" and even "archaic" language of the King James Bibl

Actually the King James Version is one of the more "error riddled" versions available. Read the forward to the Revised Standard Version, and you will learn about the origin of the King James.
I promise you that the KJV translators were smarter than
the translators of the Reviled Substandard Perversion,
smarter than whomever wrote its "Forward", and smarter than you or me.
 
Dec 19, 2009
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#25
Re: What about the "old fashioned" and even "archaic" language of the King James Bibl

I like the King James Version, but some of the words in that version had different meanings then than they do today. It would seem to me a person is better off using a more modern version, using the Kings James Version when they are trying to find the meaning of a particular passage.
 
Aug 31, 2013
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#26
Re: What about the "old fashioned" and even "archaic" language of the King James Bibl

Which version of the KJV do you think is the inspired one?
Hi Oldhermit. Golly...I've never heard this one before. Now you have me stumped;-) The only people who ask this question are those who do not believe that ANY Bible is or ever was the complete and infallible words of God;people like James White.

He asks the same question. Here is your answer.


Answering James White’s Question - Which King James Version is the infallible words of God?

As many of you know, James White is a King James Bible critic who thinks it is based on inferior texts and is full of inaccurate translations. James White says he believes “the Bible” is the inerrant words of God, but when asked to tell us where we can get a copy of this inerrant and complete Bible he will never tell you where to get one. Why? Simply because he doesn’t have one and doesn’t really believe such a thing exists in print anywhere on this earth. His “inerrant” Bible is an ever changing, nebulous, unidentified, hypothetical figment of his imagination and personal opinions. It is not a real and tangible Book in print that you or anyone else can actually hold in their hands, read for themselves and believe every word.

James White knows this to be true, in spite of his pious sounding words about believing “the Bible” (never identified by him) IS the inerrant words of God. So he has written his book, The King James Only Controversy, in an attempt to overthrow the faith of us Bible believers that we really do have such a thing as the complete, authoritative, 100% historically true and inspired words of the living God in our Authorized King James Holy Bible.

One of the last ditch tactics of those I refer to as “Bible Agnostics” resort to, in their efforts to undermine and overthrow the KJB only position, is to ask us “Which KJV is the inerrant words of God? the Cambridge edition or the Oxford edition? or the 1769 edition by Blayney? Which KJV is your inspired and inerrant Bible?

Please note that when I say I am a King James Bible onlyist, I do not mean by this that I believe that only those who read, use and believe the King James Bible are saved and real Christians. I do not mean this at all, nor do I believe that way. The gospel of salvation is found in any bible out there in print, no matter how contradictory, imperfect, lacking or poorly translated it might be. God can and does reach His people with the truth of the gospel of salvation that is found only in our Lord Jesus Christ, even using the multitude of conflicting and ever changing modern versions, that nobody believes or defends as being the complete and infallible words of God. Salvation is not limited to only those who use and believe the King James Bible is the true words of God.

However, NOBODY who uses and promotes any of these modern versions like the NASB, ESV, NIV, NKJV, NET or Holman Standard believes that any of them are the inspired and 100% historically true words of God. That is the crucial and fundamental difference between the Bible believers and the bible agnostics who do not know for sure what God may or may not have said in His Book.

So, let’s take a closer look at what James White has to say in his book about the “revisions” of the King James Bible and what he has to offer us in its place.

James begins discussing what he calls “The Revisions of the KJV” on page 78 of his book. He starts off by telling us: “The KJV that is carried by the average KJV advocate today looks very different than the edition that came off the press of Robert Barker in 1611. Not only do many printings of the KJV today lack the marginal notes and references, but the form of the text, and the wording of the text, has undergone change over time. Editions with changes in the text came out as soon as 1612, another in 1613, followed by editions in 1616, 1629, and 1638...Most modern KJVs follow the revision made by Benjamin Blayney in 1769. Jack Lewis notes that Blayney “did extensive revision”...

He continues: “Does the modern edition of the KJV differ significantly from the 1611? That depends upon how one defines the term “significantly.” For the general audience who are seeking merely to understand the textual tradition of the KJV, no, most of the revisions have dealt with small matters of spelling, punctuation, etc. But for those who assert the absolute inerrancy of the KJV the question looms large: Which KJV?”

Mr. White then gives us a few examples of these “textual changes”, which I will address in a moment, and then he closes this section by saying: “How can one determine the “right” reading, when the KJV is made the absolute standard? Of course, the non-KJV Only believer has recourse to Greek and Hebrew manuscripts. But once a person has invested the English translation with inspiration itself, that route is no longer a consistent option.”

Mr. White has a similar conclusion on page 81 where he says: “So how can we determine the correct reading? The person who does not make the KJV the absolute authority in all things has an easy answer: look at the Hebrew text and find out. But the KJV Only believer cannot do this without betraying his position. If we have to refer to the original languages here, then we would need to do the same thing in other places where the KJV is shown to be wanting, such as Acts 5:30 or Titus 2:13. Plainly, if we make the KJV the starting point (and this is exactly what radical KJV Onlyism does), there is simply no way of determining the correct text of Jeremiah 34:16. Thankfully we are not limited to the KJV as our only source of information. The Hebrew is plural here.”

[Note: James White is completely wrong when he says that Acts 5:30 and Titus 2:13 are “wanting”. They are both right. See Acts 5:30 here - Acts5:30slew/hanged19:20 - Another King James Bible Believer

And Titus 2:13 here - Deity of Christ 3 verses - Another King James Bible Believer

James White is a very smooth talker and very tricky in the way he words things to give the impression he wishes you to have of him and his views. He piously tells us that the non King James Bible believer has “recourse to Greek and Hebrew manuscripts” and later on refers to “the Hebrew”. He seems to want you to think he actually has a real Bible “in the original languages” that he believes is the inerrant Standard of God’s inspired words. Yet it is as obvious as the noon day sun to those of us who have at least a rudimentary knowledge of the textual issues involved in the Bible version debate that James White and those like him have NO specific Hebrew and much less any Greek text that they believe are the complete and infallible words of God.

James will never tell you where you can find a complete, inspired and 100% true Holy Bible in ANY language, including his alluded to Hebrew and Greek manuscripts. He has no such Book and he knows it, but he apparently wants you to think that he does, or at least that he can piece one together if called upon to do so. His real “Absolute Standard” and “inerrant Bible” is a phantom, a vapor and a mist of nebulous, undefined and ever changing personal preferences and opinions.

The modern versions like the NASB, NIV, ESV he recommends to replace the King James Holy Bible are in fact the new “Catholic” bibles put together by the Catholic/Evangelical Combine to produce an “interconfessional” common text bible that rejects scores of Hebrew readings, which all modern version promoters think have been either corrupted or lost, and they are based on an ever changing eclectic Greek text that both modern day Evangelicals and Catholics can agree upon that omits literally thousands of words from the New Testaments of all Reformation Bibles.

Can I prove these allegations about the modern versions like the NIV, NASB, ESV, NET and Holman Standard being the "new" Catholic bibles? Absolutely. See my article Undeniable Proof that the NIV, NASB, ESV are today’s new Catholic bibles -

Real Catholic bibles - Another King James Bible Believer

In part One you will also find the links where we show many examples of where these modern versions often reject the Hebrew manuscripts James White makes reference to.


And here is part Two with numerous, concrete textual examples of how the modern, “united” UBS critical Greek text Catholic and Evangelical scholars are coming out with a common text that nobody seriously believes is the infallible words of God -

ESV,=Catholic Part 2 - Another King James Bible Believer

(more to come)
 
Aug 31, 2013
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#27
Re: What about the "old fashioned" and even "archaic" language of the King James Bibl

Now, let’s take a look at the examples of the so called “Revisions of the KJV” that James White mentions in his book.

First of all, the King James Bible has NEVER been “revised”. By this we simply mean that the King James Bible’s underlying Hebrew and Greek texts have never changed in over 400 years. When the bible agnostics speak of the alleged “thousands of changes” in the various editions or printings of the King James Bible, what has really changed is the type font from Gothic print to the Roman type, the spelling of many words like sinne to sin, and doore to door, Goe to go and hee to he. The spelling has been modernized, but the text itself has never changed.

The examples James White brings up in his book are nothing more than minor and easily explained printing errors that have occurred over the course of 400 years of printing history.

Even the American Bible Society, no friend to the King James Bible, had this to say about the "revisions" of the King James Bible. The American Bible Society wrote, "The English Bible, as left by the translators (of 1611), has come down to us unaltered in respect to its text." They further stated, "With the exception of typographical errors and changes required by the progress of orthography in the English language, the text of our present Bibles remains unchanged, and without variation from the original copy as left by the translators" (Committee on Versions to the Board of Managers, American Bible Society, 1852).

See my article called “The Printing Error Ploy” -

Printing Errors - Another King James Bible Believer

In my opinion James White creates a false standard by either saying or implying that we King James Bible believers are not allowed to have “recourse to the Hebrew and Greek manuscripts”, which, by the way, he will never identify for you.

The King James Bible English translation obviously did come from very specific Hebrew and Greek texts. We do not deny this at all. As a King James Bible believer I frequently consult the Hebrew and Greek texts that underlie this magnificent English translation called the King James Holy Bible. But I never try to use these same specific Hebrew and Greek texts to “correct” or change or alter in any way what is written in the King James Bible I have in my possession and read every day.

We King James Bible believers maintain that not only did the Sovereign God of the Universe lead and guide the King James Bible translators to the correct and SPECIFIC inspired Hebrew and Greek texts (after all - only He knows for sure what He inspired among all the thousands of variant readings) but that He also guided them to put INTO THE ENGLISH TEXT ITSELF exactly what meanings He wants to be there in the English language.

The examples James White comes up with in his book are nothing more than minor printing errors that were soon caught and corrected. Even Mr. White himself explains: “Of course, the process of printing such a large and cumbersome work created printer’s errors as well. Even today we find such things in our computer type-set Bibles, so it is easy to understand how mistakes could creep into the text of the Bible, printed as it was in a much more laborious and difficult manner.” (pages 77-78)

Indeed, the printing process was very cumbersome and extremely difficult. They had to set the individual letters one letter at a time, upside down and backwards and it would have been very easy for a tired and harried printer to easily overlook or confuse a few letters or words as he went about placing the hand written text into the printed format.

A bit later James states: “For most people the changes are both minor and essentially trivial, for no one would seriously consider the idea that a printer’s error, or even a difference in the final printed editions that ends up being copied by other publishing companies, is truly relevant to the Word of God.” (page 79)

Well, I agree with him in these statements he makes about the printing errors.

The King James Bible believer has something the modern versionists do not have. They themselves do not believe that any Bible in any language IS or ever was the complete and infallible words of God. On the other hand, we do, and we have a “double check system” they do not have because their Hebrew and Greek texts are constantly changing and they often reject the Hebrew readings.

We King James Bible believers have BOTH the underlying, specific Hebrew and Greek texts that have never changed to consult AND the God given English text that we believe and read every day. If we find what might be a printing error in the English text, all we have to do is take a look at the Hebrew or Greek texts that form the underlying basis of our English translation. This is what has traditionally been done with the King James Bible. No Bible in history has been so minutely examined, compared and cared for so as to maintain its purity and precision as the King James Bible.

The examples James brings up on page 79 of his book are the following. After asking “Which KJV?” he lists Deuteronomy 26:1 where “the LORD” was changed to “the LORD thy God”. This easily explained printing error was found and corrected in 1629.

In Joshua 13:29 “Manasseh” was changed to “the children of Manasseh”. This printing error was found and corrected in 1638.

In Psalm 69:32 “seek good” was changed to “seek God”. This easily explained printing error of just one letter was caught and changed to the correct reading of “seek God” in 1617 merely by comparing the Hebrew text and the previous English bibles.

In Jeremiah 49:1 a similar thing occurred when “inherit God” was caught and corrected in 1616 to correctly read “inherit Gad”.

In Mark 10:18 “there is no man good, but one” was changed in 1638 to “there is none good but one”, and in 1616 the “approved unto death” was caught and corrected to “appointed unto death” in 1 Corinthians 4:9 as it had read in Tyndale, Coverdale, the Great Bible, Matthew’s Bible, Bishops’ bible and the Geneva Bible.

The one that seems highly important to the bible agnostic crowd is found in 1 John 5:12 where the original printing in 1611 accidentally omitted the words “of God” and read: “He that hath the Son hath life; and he that hath not the Son hath not life.” This minor error did not change the meaning of the verse at all, and was caught and changed to “he that hath not the Son of God hath not life.” in 1629. How did they discover this minor printing error? (They are ALL minor) They merely consulted the underlying, specific Greek texts that form part of our inspired and infallible Bible and then made the necessary correction to the English text. This correction was made in 1629.

It is important to note that none of these King James Bibles with their minor, past printing errors are around today and nobody uses them. If you ever find one that has one of these past printing errors in them, they would be worth thousands upon thousands of dollars and of interest only to rare book collectors.

You can find out for yourself about the correction of these minor printing errors by picking up a copy of ‘The Authorized Edition of the English Bible (1611) It’s Subsequent Reprints And Modern Representatives” by F.H.A. Scrivener, Cambridge: at the University Press 1884. You can purchase a copy from the Bible For Today at The Bible For Today HomePage Telephone 856-854-4452. Notice they are called “Reprints” NOT “Revisions”!

These previous minor printing errors have been found and corrected over the years, most within the first 25 to 30 years of the first printing of the Holy Bible in 1611. James White mentions a couple that still exist between the Oxford editions and the Cambridge editions. We will take a closer look at these two examples, both of extremely minor importance to the overall issue of an inspired and infallible Bible.

James mentions Ruth 3:15 where the 1611 printing said “and HE went into the city” (speaking of Boaz) whereas the present Cambridge printing says “and SHE went into the city” (speaking of Ruth).


Ruth 3:15. The Cambridge edition, which I use, says: "Also he said, Bring the vail that thou hast upon thee, and hold it. And when she held it, he measured six measures of barley, and laid it on her: and SHE went into the city."

There was a discrepancy between the edition published in 1611 and the one published in 1613. The verse in question was Ruth 3:15. In the 1611 edition, it read, “HE went into the city,” referring to Boaz. In the 1613 edition, it read, “SHE went into the city,” referring to Ruth. These two editions became known as “the Great He Bible” and “the Great She Bible,” respectively.

This printing error was soon discovered and changed back to the reading of "she" went into the city.

There still continue to be differences among the many versions even in Ruth 3:15. Those versions that read: "And HE went into the city" are the NIV 1984 and 2011 editions, Revised Version 1885, American Standard Version 1901, Darby 1890, Young's, the Jewish 1917 translation, the 1998 Complete Jewish Bible translation, the World English Bible, New Century Version 1991, New Living Translation, the New Revised Standard Version 1989, and the 2005 TNIV (Today's NIV).

The versions that read: "And SHE went into the city" are the KJB, NKJV, NASB, Revised Standard Version, Coverdale, Bishop's, Douay, Bible in Basic English, Geneva bible, 1936 Jewish translation, Holman Standard, New English Bible 1970, Douay 1950, New Jerusalem Bible 1985, and the 2001 English Standard Version. Notice in the case of the RSV, NRSV, and ESV, each of which is a revision of the other, that the RSV went with "he", then the NRSV read "she", and the latest ESV has now gone back to "he" again.

We even get conflicting footnotes in some of these versions. The NKJV which reads SHE, just as the KJB and NASB, has a footnote which says: "Masoretic text reads HE; some Hebrew manuscripts, Syriac, and Vulgate read SHE. But the NASB footnote reads “many manuscripts read “she”, Masoretic text has “he”.

However the NIV, NRSV, both of which still say HE, have footnotes telling us: "Most Hebrew manuscripts read HE, but many Hebrew manuscripts, Vulgate and Syriac read SHE." So, the multitude of modern versions continue to disagree among themselves in their textual reading.

In neither example is the meaning of the English text changed. In Ruth 3:15 there are Hebrew texts that read “he” and others that read “she”. In either case, both Boaz and Ruth ended up going into the city.

The other example James White brings up in his book on page 80 is Jeremiah 34:16. He has a chart which shows the Cambridge edition reading “whom YE had set at liberty” while the Oxford edition says: “whom HE had set at liberty”. He says he consulted with James Price (another bible agnostic) who was largely responsible for the NKJV translation and the Hebrew word is plural and so it should be “ye” or “you” and not “he”, as the NKJV has it.

Jeremiah 34:16 "But ye turned and polluted my name, and caused every man his servant, and every man his handmaid, whom YE had set at liberty at their pleasure, to return, and brought them into subjection..."

The original 1611 said "YE" as does the Cambridge edition today, but the Oxford KJB edition says "whom HE had set at liberty".

Other Bible Versions in Jeremiah 34:16 - "whom YE (or YOU) had set at liberty" - Wycliffe 1395, Coverdale 1535, the Great Bible 1540, Matthew’s Bible 1549, the Bishops’s Bible 1568, the Geneva Bible 1587, the ASV, RV, NASB, NIV, RSV, NRSV, ESV, Rotherham's Emphasized bible 1902, the 1917 Jewish translation put out by Jewish Publication Society, and the Third Millenium Bible 1998.

However other versions say "whom HE had set at liberty" - including the NKJV, Youngs, 1936 Jewish translation put out by the Hebrew Publishing Company of New York, and Lamsa’s 1936 translation of the Syriac. The NIV Spanish translation has made it a singular instead of the Hebrew plural as found in the NIV English translation. The Spanish Reina Valera's read as does the KJB with "que habíais liberado" (whom ye had set at liberty) but the NIV Nueva Versión Internacional has made it a singular with "que había liberado." (whom he had set at liberty).


As for Jeremiah 34:16 the plural “ye” is the more correct Hebrew reading, but even if we go with “he” the basic meaning of the passage is still not changed at all. The “he” would be just each individual member of the group referred to collectively as “ye”. If those who strain at gnats and swallow the camel of the bogus modern day Bible Babble Buffet versions that reject the Hebrew readings in scores of places, add hundreds of words from the so called Greek Septuagint, continue to change the underlying Hebrew and Greek texts as well as their English translations from one edition to the next, and are based on the wrong, corrupted Catholic Greek texts in their the New Testaments that omit anywhere from 17 to 45 entire verses plus another couple thousand words on top of that, then let them choke on their camel of unbelief in the infallibility of the Bible. They will never be satisfied until you go along with them in their unbelief in an inspired and inerrant Bible.

By the way, this alleged printing error found in Matthew 23:24 of “strain AT a gnat” is NOT a printing error at all. Here is why:

Mt23strainat; 1Tim2:9sha - Another King James Bible Believer

Conclusion - Which King James Bible?

The King James Bible believer, when asked by others where we can get God’s complete, inspired and 100% historically true words of God can confidently say that God’s pure words of truth are found in any King James Bible you can buy in the stores today. If you are still hung up on the "ye" or "he" thingy in Jeremiah 34:16, then go with the Cambridge printings of the King James Holy Bible. There, we have answered your question, Mr. White. Satisfied? No? I didn't think you would be.

Bible agnostics like James White will never submit to the final authority of God's written words as found in the King James Holy Bible. They prefer to be their own final authority (and none of them agrees 100% of the time with anybody else on the matter either). It's pretty heady stuff when you get to have the "final say" (though subject to change at a moment's notice) about what God really said. They like it this way. It is like a drug to them. Easy to get into; very hard to get out of it.



Men like James White SAY they believe The Bible IS the inerrant words of God, but when you back them into a corner to tell us exactly where we can get this infallible Book they profess to believe in, they have nothing to give us. I have personally asked James White where we can get a copy of the "infallible Bible" he SAYS he believes in. He immediately tried to change the subject. It is one thing to say you don't believe that any translation or any complete Bible text is the infallible words of God, and more and more Christians are doing this now. It is unbelief but at least it is honest unbelief. But to SAY you believe the Bible is the infallible words of God when in fact you have no infallible Bible to give to anyone and you know you don't, this is dishonest and is in fact a bald faced lie. James White is a proven liar.


We have now answered Mr. White's question of "Which KJV?". Let James White and others like him return the favor and now answer ours if they can - "Which Bible is the infallible words of God?"

All of grace, believing The Book and kept by the power of God through faith,

Will Kinney

Return to Articles: - Articles - Another King James Bible Believer
 
Aug 31, 2013
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#28
Re: What about the "old fashioned" and even "archaic" language of the King James Bibl

I like the King James Version, but some of the words in that version had different meanings then than they do today. It would seem to me a person is better off using a more modern version, using the Kings James Version when they are trying to find the meaning of a particular passage.
Hi resurrection. Apparently you missed one of the links I gave. The question for you is this - Do you believe that ANY Bible in ANY language IS the complete and infallible words of God? Yes or No? IF Yes, then can you show us a copy of this infallible Bible you profess to believe in that when others differ from it either in texts or meaning, then your infallible Bible is right and the others are not? Do you have such a Bible? If not, are you willing to be honest enough to admit it?

Secondly, here is the article I think you missed. What about the "old fashioned" language of the KJB?

"Archaic" KJB; ship - Another King James Bible Believer

God bless.
 
J

JHM

Guest
#29
Re: What about the "old fashioned" and even "archaic" language of the King James Bibl

@ Huckleberry : Smarter eh ? See my I.Q. test results from the "Four Sigma Society" (who only accept 1 in 30,000 people, - I didn't qualify, BUT my reading comprehension was tested as being in the 99.997th percentile, or third highest in an average group of 100,000 people. SEE :

idiot sheet001.jpg
 

oldhermit

Senior Member
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#30
Re: What about the "old fashioned" and even "archaic" language of the King James Bibl

Hi Oldhermit. Golly...I've never heard this one before. Now you have me stumped;-) The only people who ask this question are those who do not believe that ANY Bible is or ever was the complete and infallible words of God;people like James White.

So, if the KJV is to be regarded as the only inspired translation of scripture, which printing of the KJV is the correct one?
 
J

JHM

Guest
#31
Re: What about the "old fashioned" and even "archaic" language of the King James Bibl

Further to what I said to "Huckleberry" : I should point out when I had submitted my answers to their questions, I realized that I had got one answer wrong, so I resubmitted my answers, and wound up getting TWO test result saheets from them. The one that I posted here is the lower of the two, because I used to carry the higher one in a briefcase that got stolen from me
 
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Aug 31, 2013
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#32
Re: What about the "old fashioned" and even "archaic" language of the King James Bibl

Hi Oldhermit. Golly...I've never heard this one before. Now you have me stumped;-) The only people who ask this question are those who do not believe that ANY Bible is or ever was the complete and infallible words of God;people like James White.

So, if the KJV is to be regarded as the only inspired translation of scripture, which printing of the KJV is the correct one?
Hi hermit, already asked and answered. Here is the answer again.

Answer White -Which KJB? - Another King James Bible Believer

Short answer - Any King James Bible you can buy in the Christian bookstores today. Now, tell us whether or not you believe there exists such a thing as a complete, inspired and 100% true Bible in any language. Yes or No? If Yes, then can you SHOW us a copy of it so we can see what it says. Or will you actually be honest enough to admit that you do not believe that any Bible today IS the inerrant words of God? Thanks.
 
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#33
Re: What about the "old fashioned" and even "archaic" language of the King James Bibl

I also find it highly ironic that these same people who complain about the "hard to understand and archaic language" of the King James Bible, now want us to learn two very difficult archaic languages that are no longer spoken today and that are FAR more difficult than anything you will find in the English text of the King James Bible. Biblical Hebrew and Greek are very different from modern Hebrew and Greek and no native speaker talks that way. Don't these people ever stop to think through their position and what they are actually saying?
Your position on this debate is very weak, because it's self-contradicting. You don't believe in "the" Hebrew or "the" Greek version of the bible but you believe in "the" English version. I'm not saying that you're claiming that there's only one English version (you're clearly not), but you're arguing for the superiority of one version while treating all of the foreign-language versions as if there could not be a "best" version of one of them.

I think that the reason that people argue for the superiority of the "older" versions -- despite being in more archaic language -- is that they're closer to first-hand accounts. These people feel that something has been "lost in translation", because that's a thing that actually happens due to the inexactness of translation. Or, there are people who prefer the modern versions because they don't feel that anything gets lost in translation, especially between older English and modern English, which I think are more related that two completely different languages.
 

oldhermit

Senior Member
Jul 28, 2012
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#34
Re: What about the "old fashioned" and even "archaic" language of the King James Bibl

Hi hermit, already asked and answered. Here is the answer again.

Answer White -Which KJB? - Another King James Bible Believer

Short answer - Any King James Bible you can buy in the Christian bookstores today. Now, tell us whether or not you believe there exists such a thing as a complete, inspired and 100% true Bible in any language. Yes or No? If Yes, then can you SHOW us a copy of it so we can see what it says. Or will you actually be honest enough to admit that you do not believe that any Bible today IS the inerrant words of God? Thanks.
As a student of the Greek language, I can assure you that there is no such thing as an inerrant translation of scripture in any language simply because of the incompatibility factor between languages. There are other reasons as well but, this one alone is sufficient to dispel the argument.
 
J

JHM

Guest
#35
Re: What about the "old fashioned" and even "archaic" language of the King James Bibl

From the "Preface" to The Revised Standard Version :

The King James Version of the New Testament was based on a Greek text that was marred by mistakes, containing the accumulated errors of fourteen centuries of manuscript copying. It was essentially the Greek text of the New Testament as edited by Beza, 1589, who closely followed that published by Erasmus, 1516-1535, which was based on a few medieval manuscripts. The earliest and best of the eight manuscripts which Erasmus consulted was from the tenth century, and he made the least use of it because it differed most from the commonly received text; Beza had access to two manuscripts of great value dating from the fifth and sixth centuries, but he made very little use of them because they differed from the text published by Erasmus.

We now possess many more ancient manuscripts of the New Testament, and are far better equipped to seek to recover the original wording of the Greek text. ETC. ETC.
 
Dec 21, 2012
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#36
Re: What about the "old fashioned" and even "archaic" language of the King James Bibl

Wow this thread became unloving quite fast. *marches all to the 2 Timothy 2:14-26 corner
Hi Mammachickadee, God bless you sister.

Certain KJV-onlyists are using the name of Jesus Christ to promote book sales of false teaching by foul-mouthed, poison-pen racists, right here on CC.

Peter Ruckman - Wikipedia, the free encyclopedia

"Ruckman is known for his confrontational style. ... His mental powers are plainly demonstrated in his books, though most people do not bother to read far enough to recognize this due to the constant stream of invective that is to be found on nearly every page. And yet his cocky confidence attracts many people to his viewpoint."[16] Ruckman once described the New American Standard Bible as "more of the same old godless, depraved crap"[17] On another occasion, Ruckman labeled a rival KJV-Only supporter, a "puffed up conceited ***."[18] And although Ruckman graduated from Bob Jones University, he has referred to it as "the World's Most Unusual Hell Hole."[19]"

"In 1984, Ruckman wrote, "Negroes have to be carried. Where they are left to themselves they resort to mugging, rape, slavery, dope traffic, and eventually cannibalism.[23] In 1994, he wrote that "no matter how much integration is carried out, the IQ of blacks is always lower than whites."[24] ..."


Praus, I recommend getting the King James Code by Mike Hoggard:

And you also may want to check out the book Peter Ruckman did on Bible Numerics:

View attachment 55944

What is presented in them are facts. Undeniable and they cannot be refuted. So Praus, if the text of the Authorized King James Version is not perfect like you believe, then what is your explanation for these Numerical codes?

No one on the face of this earth could produce such Numerical patterns in a text of any kind. Study into the subject of Bible Numerics. Study it out and see what the Lord will reveal to you.

So, the "unloving" issue, what did Jesus do the moneychangers in the temple?

Matt 21:12 ¶ And Iesus went into the temple of God, and cast out all them that sold and bought in the Temple, and ouerthrew the tables of the money changers, and the seats of them that solde doues, 13 And said vnto them, It is written, My house shall be called the house of prayer, but yee haue made it a denne of theeues.

I have read some of the essays from brother brandplucked's site at


Home - Another King James Bible Believer


He is from a totally different school of KJV-onlyism as ChosenByHim, etc. and I have hope that he will bring a more enlightened position on the topic.

 

vic1980

Senior Member
Apr 25, 2013
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#37
Re: What about the "old fashioned" and even "archaic" language of the King James Bibl

I've said it once i'll say it again, the never ending thread on cc until Jesus returns :)
 

oldhermit

Senior Member
Jul 28, 2012
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#38
Re: What about the "old fashioned" and even "archaic" language of the King James Bibl

The KJV is actually a good translation, the issue is what it was translated from.
 
N

nathan3

Guest
#39
Re: What about the "old fashioned" and even "archaic" language of the King James Bibl

The KJV is actually a good translation, the issue is what it was translated from.
There is nothing wrong with where it was translated from . grief.

It was translated from accurate copies

These manuscripts represent the manuscripts from which the "Textus Receptus" or Received Text was taken.

They are the majority of Greek manuscripts which agree with each other and have been accepted by Bible believing Christians down through the centuries. It is from these manuscripts that the King James Bible was translated in 1611...........


More resent translations of the Bible use other manuscripts that do not agree with each other. You can figure out what manuscripts they used.

We don't even read the Original King James 1611 today, but one that is comparable, that is updated, even though it still retained some thees and thy's ....We have been using a updated version. If you want to see how hard it is to read the Original then go here


The Bible Museum - 1611 King James First Edition
 
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oldhermit

Senior Member
Jul 28, 2012
9,142
612
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#40
Re: What about the "old fashioned" and even "archaic" language of the King James Bibl

There is nothing wrong with where it was translated from . grief.

It was translated from accurate copies

These manuscripts represent the manuscripts from which the "Textus Receptus" or Received Text was taken.

They are the majority of Greek manuscripts which agree with each other and have been accepted by Bible believing Christians down through the centuries. It is from these manuscripts that the King James Bible was translated in 1611...........


More resent translations of the Bible use other manuscripts that do not agree with each other. You can figure out what manuscripts they used.

We don't even read the Original King James 1611 today, but one that is comparable, that is updated, even though it still retained some thees and thy's ;..W e have been using a updated version. If you want to see how hard it is to read the Original then go here


The Bible Museum - 1611 King James First Edition
How much do you know about Greek and Greek manuscripts?