Why was a sinless Jesus Baptized?

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heartofdavid

Guest
#22
More fantasy. No human being could "transfer" the priesthood from one tribe to another. Indeed, we are not even told as to which tribe Melchizedek belonged, but we are told in no uncertain terms that GOD HIMSELF made Jesus High Priest after the order of Melchizedek, to confirm that the Aaronic priesthood within the Old Covenant ended at the Cross.
Yes through lineage.
Stop acting like you know so much.
Most of it is a no brainer. So obvious,but somehow escapes you
 

stonesoffire

Poetic Member
Nov 24, 2013
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#24
More fantasy. No human being could "transfer" the priesthood from one tribe to another. Indeed, we are not even told as to which tribe Melchizedek belonged, but we are told in no uncertain terms that GOD HIMSELF made Jesus High Priest after the order of Melchizedek, to confirm that the Aaronic priesthood within the Old Covenant ended at the Cross.
Melchizadek wasnt of an earthly tribe was he?
 
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heartofdavid

Guest
#25
More fantasy. No human being could "transfer" the priesthood from one tribe to another. Indeed, we are not even told as to which tribe Melchizedek belonged, but we are told in no uncertain terms that GOD HIMSELF made Jesus High Priest after the order of Melchizedek, to confirm that the Aaronic priesthood within the Old Covenant ended at the Cross.
Hello???
Melchisadech was not of any tribe.
He was pre abraham
 
E

eternally-gratefull

Guest
#27
There was no "levitical priesthood fulfilled" at the cross. The levitical priesthood was disenfranchised. Torn down Before passover duties.

IOW, You had one illegitimate priestood act in futility and one TRUE,NEW,BETTER,Priesthood ,Jesus, officiating his own sacrifice.

The levitical ended at Jesus baptism.
All you saw after that was an empty shell of ordinances.
Lol.. wow. Do you study much? Jesus fulfilled the levitical priesthood, in that he was the lamb who satisfied completely the wrath of God, The levitical priesthood was part of the law. Which was the schoolmaster to lead us to christ. Justus fulfilled the law on the cross.

His baptism did not do anything, but introduce him to Isreal as the lamb of God, the messiah. That is what John said, why add to the word?
 
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heartofdavid

Guest
#28
Revelations Started so many religion’s why can’t people just stick with the word? Safer that way
It's like this, the ot ILLUMINATES the nt.

How?

THROUGH REVELATION.
(Why the ethiopian needed phillip to ILLUMINATE the scripture he was reading)
 
H

heartofdavid

Guest
#29
Lol.. wow. Do you study much? Jesus fulfilled the levitical priesthood, in that he was the lamb who satisfied completely the wrath of God, The levitical priesthood was part of the law. Which was the schoolmaster to lead us to christ. Justus fulfilled the law on the cross.

His baptism did not do anything, but introduce him to Isreal as the lamb of God, the messiah. That is what John said, why add to the word?
No such thing.
You have it ecactly backwards.
He came TO CHANGE THE PRIESTHOOD.

YOU DON'T UNDERSTAND what you are trying to convey.
The priesthood is NOT THE SAME as the law.
Jesus fulfilled the law,not the priesthood.

You ,by putting down truth, are just showing your own ignorance
 

Nehemiah6

Senior Member
Jul 18, 2017
24,591
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#30
Ive always wondered what this means. Not that I disagree with any other post here, I don't. All great points with truth imo. But, is this part of fulfilling law?
"To fulfil all righteousness" is not connected to fulfilling the Law, but fulfilling God's righteous plan of salvation, where He could be just, and the Justifier of the one who believe on Christ. So, since Christ was "made Sin for us", He identified with all sinners in His baptism. That is how we could be made "the righteousness of God" in Him.
 

stonesoffire

Poetic Member
Nov 24, 2013
10,665
1,829
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#31
"To fulfil all righteousness" is not connected to fulfilling the Law, but fulfilling God's righteous plan of salvation, where He could be just, and the Justifier of the one who believe on Christ. So, since Christ was "made Sin for us", He identified with all sinners in His baptism. That is how we could be made "the righteousness of God" in Him.
Ok. But, let's remember. The Jews baptized to turn to God from sin. And called it born again. Not born from above, born again. So wasn't this part of the law?

And a new priesthood then? I can see this as being true. The old way and meaning changed of baptism. The New commences with the Spirit anointing then.

And what waggles said, was what I was taught. He is our pattern.
 
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eternally-gratefull

Guest
#32
It's like this, the ot ILLUMINATES the nt.

How?

THROUGH REVELATION.
(Why the ethiopian needed phillip to ILLUMINATE the scripture he was reading)
scripture does not reveal your revelation.
 
E

eternally-gratefull

Guest
#33
No such thing.
You have it ecactly backwards.
He came TO CHANGE THE PRIESTHOOD.

YOU DON'T UNDERSTAND what you are trying to convey.
The priesthood is NOT THE SAME as the law.
Jesus fulfilled the law,not the priesthood.

You ,by putting down truth, are just showing your own ignorance
Your misunderstand, the levitical priesthood was part of the law. Moses was given the law pertaining to the priesthood. Without the law there is no levitical priesthood.

Yes, he came to change the priesthood,. Thats what he did on the cross. Not at his baptism.

Your silly child like attack (last statement) is meaningless. And just hurts your cause.
 
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eternally-gratefull

Guest
#34
Ok. But, let's remember. The Jews baptized to turn to God from sin. And called it born again. Not born from above, born again. So wasn't this part of the law?

And a new priesthood then? I can see this as being true. The old way and meaning changed of baptism. The New commences with the Spirit anointing then.

And what waggles said, was what I was taught. He is our pattern.
Not sure what you mean, Thee jews did what?
 

stonesoffire

Poetic Member
Nov 24, 2013
10,665
1,829
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#35
Not sure what you mean, Thee jews did what?
Water baptism. Mikveh. Not sure if I spelled that correctly.

They baptized for cleansing from their sins. And more than once. The Nazarenes baptized on a daily basis every morning, according to a website from their beliefs.

And they called it being born again. We are born from above.
 
Apr 15, 2017
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#36
I do not believe that the sins of the world were transferred to Jesus at His baptism,but at the cross,which is why He cried out,My God,My God,why have you forsaken Me,for it was the man Christ Jesus that cried out,for the sins of the world were placed upon Him,and He felt what it was like to be separated from God,but in reality knew that God did not really turn His back on Him,for He said the Father will never leave Him,and after He cried out,He said,Father in to your hands I commend My spirit(human spirit).

The sins of the world were not placed upon Jesus at baptism,and John said to Jesus that He did not need to be baptized,and that he needed to be baptized by Jesus,so if John was transferring the sins of the world on Jesus,and in a high priest role,why was John trying to avoid doing it because He said Jesus did not need to be baptized.

Jesus said that He had to be baptized to fulfill all righteousness,which in other words He had to do everything that a man had to do to be right with God,for His Savior role to be effective,and being a sinless man He could accomplish it perfectly,which the baptism of John was given to the people,so the man Christ Jesus had to be baptized.

That is why Jesus said until heaven and earth pass away,no jot,or tittle,shall in no wise pass from the law,until all is fulfilled.

Which Jesus had to fulfill the Old Testament,by doing everything a man had to do to be right with God in order for Him to be the Savior of the world,and the New Testament to go in to affect.

He is the perfect King,the perfect High Priest,the perfect Prophet,the perfect saint,the perfect sacrifice,the prefect temple,the perfect Judge,the perfect Savior,and whatever role,and action,He had to do to be right with God to be the Savior of the world.

Jesus is the King of kings,which means He is the King of the saints,and He is the High Priest,where the saints are priests,which Jesus has made the saints kings,and priests,unto God the Father.

But Jesus has not fulfilled the role of perfect King on earth,in which everybody only acknowledges Him,and no other god,or religious authority,but it will happen in the millennial reign of Christ,which in that day the LORD shall be King over all the earth,and there shall be one LORD,and His name one.

Jesus went away to prepare a place for the saints,a new heaven,and a new earth,the New Jerusalem,where sin has never been,and sin will never be,and the old heaven,and old earth,shall pass away,be dissolved,for all sin must be purged with fire,and they will not be remembered,nor come to mind,because they are associated with sin and rebellion,which Jesus said I make all things new,and the former things have passed away.

When Jesus fulfills His role as King on earth for 1000 years,then heaven,and earth,shall pass away,and the law has been fulfilled,and the saints will go to the New Jerusalem,the final destination of the saints,and the angels,and saints,will remember nothing prior to the New Jerusalem,and will feel like they have always been there,and nowhere else,but they are not robots for they made the choice to love God beforehand.

Jesus was baptized to fulfill all righteousness.

Mat 3:13 Then cometh Jesus from Galilee to Jordan unto John, to be baptized of him.
Mat 3:14 But John forbad him, saying, I have need to be baptized of thee, and comest thou to me?
Mat 3:15 And Jesus answering said unto him, Suffer it to be so now: for thus it becometh us to fulfil all righteousness. Then he suffered him.

If John was in a high priest role,and transferring the sins of the world to Jesus at baptism,why did John forbid it,and not want to do it,and said that he needs to be baptized of Jesus,for surely John would know his role before Jesus got there,for he received the Spirit in the womb to give him power,and to live right,so he could get the people prepared for Jesus in the future.
 
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eternally-gratefull

Guest
#38
EG, doesn't it say that his mind was opened to the understanding of the scriptures?
Yes. It was for the person in the bible

it does not mean everyone who has a revelation has a word from God.
 
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eternally-gratefull

Guest
#39
Water baptism. Mikveh. Not sure if I spelled that correctly.

They baptized for cleansing from their sins. And more than once. The Nazarenes baptized on a daily basis every morning, according to a website from their beliefs.

And they called it being born again. We are born from above.
This is found in scripture where? it is not even found in the law. So why would jews teach this? Makes no sense.
 
Dec 12, 2013
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#40
Because of the following.....

a. Immersion is an outward sign as circumcision was in the OT.

b. As a sign it is an identifier or picture of the death, burial and resurrection of Jesus

c. It is the first act of obedience under the New Covenant

d. To set an example for all to follow