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Paul ”suffers not a woman to teach or have authority over a man,” which brings up the interpretive gray area of just what IS ”authority” defined as in the church .
But, for the sake of not being more divided toward God's others on here, thinking this idea.different than I, here is a slant angle different than the 'curve' thrown by me in other threads regarding the very understanding of the word, ”authority,' as defined as Paul's intended meaning in the 1st century A.D. via this incredible verse of 1 Timothy 2:12 that leaves so many both incredulous and dumbfounded in their thinking.
But, yes, the question is VERY simple I ask you now:
Does Paul tell women ANYWHERE in Scripture they are NEVER to preach or teach to a man in a church setting?
We know that Paul outlines that if a man desires to be a bishop (pastor) then he is to be the husband of one wife. 1 Tim. 3:1
But, does this PROVE to YOU beyond a shadow,of a doubt that a man can only be appointed (called) by God to the pulpit , to preach/teach. Again, as I stated earlier in this OP (opening post), I don't use words ”have authority,” because we are ALL, ultimately, subject to Christ Jesus , even though Scripture is clear that a husband (this ”husband” word does NOT mean ”man.”) does have authority over his wife and also she is to ”submit” to her husband.
Now, this all said, don't vote without also explaining in a 'reply' post of why you said 'yes' to Scripture that verbaTim, or, so close to verbatim, there can be NO argument or debate as to why you can say 'yes.'
But, for the sake of not being more divided toward God's others on here, thinking this idea.different than I, here is a slant angle different than the 'curve' thrown by me in other threads regarding the very understanding of the word, ”authority,' as defined as Paul's intended meaning in the 1st century A.D. via this incredible verse of 1 Timothy 2:12 that leaves so many both incredulous and dumbfounded in their thinking.
But, yes, the question is VERY simple I ask you now:
Does Paul tell women ANYWHERE in Scripture they are NEVER to preach or teach to a man in a church setting?
We know that Paul outlines that if a man desires to be a bishop (pastor) then he is to be the husband of one wife. 1 Tim. 3:1
But, does this PROVE to YOU beyond a shadow,of a doubt that a man can only be appointed (called) by God to the pulpit , to preach/teach. Again, as I stated earlier in this OP (opening post), I don't use words ”have authority,” because we are ALL, ultimately, subject to Christ Jesus , even though Scripture is clear that a husband (this ”husband” word does NOT mean ”man.”) does have authority over his wife and also she is to ”submit” to her husband.
Now, this all said, don't vote without also explaining in a 'reply' post of why you said 'yes' to Scripture that verbaTim, or, so close to verbatim, there can be NO argument or debate as to why you can say 'yes.'