No, because just before issuing this as being of the Holy Ghost and called essential this followed after a dispute with those who believed saying they (the Gentiles) needed to be circumcised and keep the law of Moses to be saved.
I do realize that the things offered to idols (and the meats there in respects to the same) had more to do with the conscience, given up to that hour they were conscience of an idol (that had more to do with conscience) whereas today we arent conscience of any such thing. Not to say it does exist. I had first thought it pertained to the blood of Christ at first, or blood in a whole different way, but it follows up on meats offered (unto idols) from blood (right after that) and then that which is strangled (then fornication) in that order.
I mean even at that time when these things were at their peak this was said to be nothing at all, or rather no greater burden then these things things. So how much heavier could such things be today when they are basically non existent (with the exception of fornication)?
And these were named after grace was lifted up in contrast to the law.
My only question is what if someone started advocating any of these things under grace? Would that be acceptable?
Why would the Holy Ghost make these things essential and then be like, alrighty guys, start drinking blood, eating strangled, offering meat to idols (because it was a temptorary essential) but not a long term essential.
I mean who is going to fight to have what grosses us all out?
I think the context in these two provinces of Syria and Cilicia is
offensiveness to the
many new Jewish converts there (Ac 15:21), and that these proscriptions are simply
a transitional
accommodation to these Jewish sensitivities, which would gradually fade
for them over time in the new order (Heb 9:10).
I think this because Paul is clear on two points:
nothing is unclean (Ro 14:14) and
food sacrificed to idols is not forbidden (1Co 10:25-30).
However, for the sake of the
weak conscience of some new Christians, and to
keep them from
violating their weak consciences, the Gentile Christian is to refrain
from these practices in their presence (1Co 8:9-13).
In time, the new Jewish converts in these two provinces gradually outgrew their sensitivity
to the freedom of practices in the new order (Heb 9:10), their consciences became stronger,
the constraints were no longer necessary, and they could also live according to Ro 14:14.
Is that more clear?