Commandment #5 in the KJV is misstranslated
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i think in a materialistic, capitalist society "we're socially encouraged"
Please do not include me in your "we're".,.,., ok
posthuman, come visit US sometime.
Stay awhile or better yet, maybe this will become your home too.
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[10] Thou shall not covet thy neighbour’s house, thou shalt not covet thy neighbour’s wife, nor his manservant, nor his maidservant, nor his ox, nor his ass, nor any thing that is thy neighbor’s
Please do not include me in your "we're".,.,., ok
posthuman, come visit US sometime.
Stay awhile or better yet, maybe this will become your home too.
-[10] Thou shall not covet thy neighbour’s house, thou shalt not covet thy neighbour’s wife, nor his manservant, nor his maidservant, nor his ox, nor his ass, nor any thing that is thy neighbor’s
all you have to do is turn on a TV for 10 minutes, or a radio, or open your eyes while you drive past a billboard, or turn the ad-block off on your computer to be encouraged to covet.
it is the sole purpose of advertising, and the primary tool of the US capitalist consumerist market economy.
i really thought my comment was not difficult to comprehend.
if you have trouble understanding that, i hope this post helps.
but if you just want to be contentious, whatever, man. you gwan now and be contentious with yourself in the corner.
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The Ten Commandments have been translated into multiple languages over time. Scripture is a collection of translations of biblical verses. Most of it is pretty straightforward but I believe Commandment 5 (five) was mistranslated. Or at least in the
Christian version. Commandment #5 in the KJV is as follows:
[5] Remember the sabbath day, to keep it holy
In my view the Christian translation of Commandment five (5) should read:
[5] Remember the day of rest, to keep it holy
What do you think-?
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Christian version. Commandment #5 in the KJV is as follows:
[5] Remember the sabbath day, to keep it holy
In my view the Christian translation of Commandment five (5) should read:
[5] Remember the day of rest, to keep it holy
What do you think-?
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Technically, there really is no such thing as a "Word for Word" translation, although I know the KJV and the ESV try. That is because Greek especially has very different word order and syntax than English. For instance:
"And all the country of Judea and all Jerusalem were going out to him and were being baptized by him in the river Jordan, confessing their sins." Mark 1:5 ESV
"καὶ ἐξεπορεύετο πρὸς αὐτὸν πᾶσα ἡ Ἰουδαία χώρα καὶ οἱ Ἱεροσολυμῖται [πάντες, καὶ ἐβαπτίζοντο ὑπ’ αὐτοῦ ἐν τῷ Ἰορδάνῃ ποταμῷ ἐξομολογούμενοι τὰς ἁμαρτίας αὐτῶν." Mark 1:5 Greek
If you look at the actual meaning, and put the words underneath the Greek in English, this is what you get as a proper and exact word for word translation.
καὶ ἐξεπορεύετο πρὸς αὐτὸν πᾶσα ἡ Ἰουδαία χώρα καὶ
And they were continually going out to him all the Judean countryside and
οἱ Ἱεροσολυμῖται. πάντες, καὶ ἐβαπτίζοντο ὑπ’ αὐτοῦ
the natives of Jerusalem all, and they were letting themselves be baptized by him
ἐν τῷ Ἰορδάνῃ ποταμῷ ἐξομολογούμενοι τὰς ἁμαρτίας αὐτῶν.
in the Jordan river confessing the sins of them.
So there are little changes, mostly, because of the noun cases in Greek, which we do not have in English. Notice how the subject of the sentence, "Judean countryside and the natives of Jerusalem" has been thrown back and the predicate "and they were continually going out to him" has been thrown forward in the sentence. ESV corrects this and puts the subject first, but although that makes in correct English grammar, it also means that the exact word for word translation is lost.
Also note the final phrase τὰς ἁμαρτίας αὐτῶν. The exact translation is "the sins of them." This is very rigid and makes no sense in English. So rightly the ESV puts it as "their sins." It makes more sense, but technically, it is not word for word. Greek cases do this all the time. Especially in the gentive or possessive case.
Finally, the verbs are respectively in the middle, passive and middle tenses. A Greek would have known exactly what the writer was trying convey, and picked that voice because it was what God inspired him to say. But as you can see above, the wordiness of the verbs means it needed to be translated a bit differently, so as to not lose the flow of the sentence.
Just to compare it to KJV here is the following:
"And there went out unto him all the land of Judaea, and they of Jerusalem, and were all baptized of him in the river of Jordan, confessing their sins." Mark 1:5 KJV.
KJ actually keeps the predicate and the subject in the correct place, although "they of Jerusalem" is an interesting twist on "natives of Jerusalem." Baptized "of" him is a very strange word to use, since Upo, is "by" in genitive, not "of." I guess the translators didn't know about that usage. Plus "all" is in the wrong place, they have missed the comma and moved it close to the verb in the second clause, rather than leaving it with the subject of the first clause.
C
Hebraic Insight…
The Jewish sages note that the word “ratsakh” applies only to illegal killing (e.g., premeditated murder or manslaughter) — and is never used in the administration of justice or for killing in war. Hence the KJV translation as “thou shalt not*kill”*is too broad.
Hebrew Lessons — Ten Commandments
Makes sense, because there were laws for war and Romans the government carries the sword
The Jewish sages note that the word “ratsakh” applies only to illegal killing (e.g., premeditated murder or manslaughter) — and is never used in the administration of justice or for killing in war. Hence the KJV translation as “thou shalt not*kill”*is too broad.
Hebrew Lessons — Ten Commandments
Makes sense, because there were laws for war and Romans the government carries the sword
L
The definition of murder, and I speak from personal experience, is not left up to the person committing the crime, but for a judge and a jury of one's peers. In my case, what I did was not considered murder, but manslaughter. Is there a difference in the eyes of God? I don't know. I'll have to ask him the next time I talk to him.
KJV is given by the inspiration of God. The Word of God !
God bless
God bless
Only the original autographs were inspired by God. However, we do have a lot of good manuscripts, which mostly agree with one another. We can use those manuscripts to translate. KJV is a "translation" and can never be the original inspired word of God.
My advice is to keep reading and enjoying the KJV. But just recognize that it is not the inspired Word, but rather a translation of the inspired word.
Just because English cannot follow the Greek does not mean that Almighty God cannot give us a translation that is perfect in English. The KJV is better, because it's in English. Trying to study the copies of Greek would only make me the final authority on what God has said. I would look at a word in Greek and the five different meanings in English and than I would decide which one I think fits best. Me, Me, Me, I, I, I...no thank you. I trust every word that I've got.