The Holy spirit isn't in the bible.

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FreeNChrist

Guest
#21
the holy of spirit is in the bible but not the holy spirit. spirit is genitive when it says holy spirit or the holy spirit, and it's always translated into english in the nominative case. what the bible really says is 'the holy of spirit". Amazing that no one knows this./

Of course He isn't "in the Bible".....He's in me and every other Christian.
 
Apr 18, 2016
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#22
Im kinda slow really. I just figured out that there's a formal debate forum here. that's where I should post this stuff.
 
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FreeNChrist

Guest
#23
Im kinda slow really. I just figured out that there's a formal debate forum here. that's where I should post this stuff.
Actually, the conspiracy forum would seem more appropriate.
 
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Depleted

Guest
#24
the holy of spirit is in the bible but not the holy spirit. spirit is genitive when it says holy spirit or the holy spirit, and it's always translated into english in the nominative case. what the bible really says is 'the holy of spirit". Amazing that no one knows this./
Psa_51:11 Cast me not away from thy presence; and take not thy holy spirit from me.
Isa_63:10 But they rebelled, and vexed his holy Spirit: therefore he was turned to be their enemy, and he fought against them.
Isa_63:11 Then he remembered the days of old, Moses, and his people, saying, Where is he that brought them up out of the sea with the shepherd of his flock? where is he that put his holy Spirit within him?
Luk_11:13 If ye then, being evil, know how to give good gifts unto your children: how much more shall your heavenly Father give the Holy Spirit to them that ask him?
Eph_1:13 In whom ye also trusted, after that ye heard the word of truth, the gospel of your salvation: in whom also after that ye believed, ye were sealed with that holy Spirit of promise,
Eph_4:30 And grieve not the holy Spirit of God, whereby ye are sealed unto the day of redemption.
1Th_4:8 He therefore that despiseth, despiseth not man, but God, who hath also given unto us his holy Spirit.
 

tourist

Senior Member
Mar 13, 2014
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#26
Oh yes there is such thing as the Holy Spirit in the Bible! Here is one example:

"If ye then, being evil, know how to give good gifts unto your children: how much more shall your heavenly Father give the Holy Spirit to them that ask him?" Luke 11:13

Same tactic by the devil, question God's word! "Hath God said"
The key word in that verse is 'the'. It does not a say 'a' holy spirit will be given but says 'the holy' spirit. Good verse.
 
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BrotherJustin

Guest
#27
What is your purpose for telling this to us?
Does it build us up in our relationship with Jesus?
What does it do?
Why do you feel a need to tell us?
What is the motivating factor behind it all?
It reveals the truth. A truth hidden because of theology and deception.
You failed to answer a few questions.

here is an accurate translation of that verse.

Luke 11:13 - If therefore, ye, being, evil, know how to be giving, good gifts, unto your children, how much rather, will, the heavenly Father, give Holy Spirit unto them that ask him!(Rotherham, Ephasised bible)

there is no definite article before holy spirit. so it doesn't say 'the holy spirit' it says just 'holy spirit'. and there is a difference in the meaning between the two.
What's the difference?

You claim to know a hidden truth -- why keep hiding this "truth"?
 
Dec 1, 2014
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#28
matthew 28.19 is spurious. It isn't the word of God.
You make a claim.

Your claim is negated.

Your response is, the Word negating your claim is not the Word of God therefore it's invalid.

You're either a defense lawyer, a bureaucrat, or both.
 
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AboundingGrace

Guest
#29
here is an accurate translation of that verse.

Luke 11:13 - If therefore, ye, being, evil, know how to be giving, good gifts, unto your children, how much rather, will, the heavenly Father, give Holy Spirit unto them that ask him!(Rotherham, Ephasised bible)

there is no definite article before holy spirit. so it doesn't say 'the holy spirit' it says just 'holy spirit'. and there is a difference in the meaning between the two.
1. Since all of the manuscripts are copies, then how is it known that "give Holy Spirit" is not a scribal error? 1.b. How can it be known that it's correct in any language, or just correct in Greek, but not in English?,.. which I think requires the definite article "the".

2. Doesn't it all boil down to linguistics and translation from language to language?.. where some things just get lost or removed, or added in the process.
 

tourist

Senior Member
Mar 13, 2014
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#32
matthew 28.19 is spurious. It isn't the word of God. But it still doesn't negate my assertion that 'the holy spirit" in the nominative case doesn't exist in the bible.
spirit is genitive in matthew 28.19. But my limited search revealed no other examples, other than matthew 28.19 where the genitive of holy spirit had a definite article before it. there might be but I found none.

Is Matthew 28:19 Spurious

Go there for all the evidence for matthew 28.19 being spurious.
God knew full well how the major revisions of the bible were to be translated. There are no spurious verses in the bible and every word, punctuation mark, tittle and jot is of critical importance in order to fully understand the Word of God and the intent thereof.

You cannot pick or choose certain verses or make subtle changes in the bible to fit your own personal view or inclination and expect this interpretation to be an accurate portrayal of the intent or purpose of God in His written word.
 
Apr 18, 2016
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#33
God knew full well how the major revisions of the bible were to be translated. There are no spurious verses in the bible and every word, punctuation mark, tittle and jot is of critical importance in order to fully understand the Word of God and the intent thereof.

You cannot pick or choose certain verses or make subtle changes in the bible to fit your own personal view or inclination and expect this interpretation to be an accurate portrayal of the intent or purpose of God in His written word.
for an expose' on why matthew 28.19 is spurious go here.

Is Matthew 28:19 Spurious

do you consider 1 john 5.7 to be genuine?
 
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Apr 18, 2016
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#35
You failed to answer a few questions.



What's the difference?
God gives holy spirit means he gives himself, because the bible says God is spirit, and it also says god is holy, and it also says god the father is the one and only true or real god, therefore, luke 11;13, when translated correctly as 'give Holy Spirit" means that God gives himself to us.
inserting the definite article means god gives the 3rd person of the trinity to us.
trinity isn't in the bible. but they sure tried their hardest to put it in. this is just one example of that attempt.
BrotherJustin said:
You claim to know a hidden truth -- why keep hiding this "truth"?
I don't recall what you are referring to.
 

BenFTW

Senior Member
Oct 7, 2012
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#36
I am kind of baffled you would hold this perspective but I have a question for you then. VVhen the Holy Spirit in Acts directed the apostles to go places or to not go places, who was directing them? No one other than the Holy Spirit. A person. There are even verses that say that the Holy Spirit is the Lord and to not grieve the Spirit, which means He is a person.

If your argument is there is no Holy Spirit in the bible, you are mistaken. He, Himself, was present at Jesus' baptism, along with God, the Father. The Trinity.

Acts 16:5-7 King James Version (KJV)

5 And so were the churches established in the faith, and increased in number daily.
6 Now when they had gone throughout Phrygia and the region of Galatia, and were forbidden of the Holy Ghost to preach the word in Asia,
7 After they were come to Mysia, they assayed to go into Bithynia: but the Spirit suffered them not.
 
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BrotherJustin

Guest
#37
God gives holy spirit means he gives himself, because the bible says God is spirit, and it also says god is holy, and it also says god the father is the one and only true or real god, therefore, luke 11;13, when translated correctly as 'give Holy Spirit" means that God gives himself to us.
inserting the definite article means god gives the 3rd person of the trinity to us.
trinity isn't in the bible. but they sure tried their hardest to put it in. this is just one example of that attempt.
I don't recall what you are referring to.
The Trinity is simply a way for our feeble minds to attempt to describe God in three persons.

You're right, "trinity" is not in the Bible--but the concept of the trinity is in the Bible.

Regardless--How does the example you provided (Luke 11:13) show error by adding or leaving out the article "the"?

God is one. "Hear, O Israel: The LORD our God is one LORD" (Deut 6:4)
 

CS1

Well-known member
May 23, 2012
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#38
john 14.26 doesn't say the holy spirit, it says the holy the spirit. both spirit and holy are articular nouns. holy isn't an adjective in that verse. Plus it isn't even in the wycliffe translation. I found no translation that translates it correctly (unless it's not even in the text as wycliffe's translation would indicate.)
John 14:26 please explain your point
But the Comforter, which is the Holy Ghost, whom the Father will send in my name, he shall teach you all things, and bring all things to your remembrance, whatsoever I have said unto you.
 
Apr 18, 2016
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#39
John 14:26 please explain your point
But the Comforter, which is the Holy Ghost, whom the Father will send in my name, he shall teach you all things, and bring all things to your remembrance, whatsoever I have said unto you.
It actually reads 'but helper, the spirit, the holy whom the will send the Father in the name of me, he will you teach all things, and will bring to remembrance all things have said unto you I.

Scripture says God is spirit, it also says God is holy, it also says God the father is the one and only true God. therefore when john 14.26 says that God the father will send the helper, the spirit, the holy. he is referring to himself. Most translators falsely translate it as the holy spirit to support their trinity doctrine because the true wording, that i have written above doesn't support that doctrine. I believe in this verse God the father is personifying himself as a helper, and describing himself when he says 'the spirit, the holy."
 

LOLOKGal

Senior Member
Nov 13, 2015
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#40
τοῦ "(t-gsn)of-the-one" ἁγίου "(A-GSN)of-hallow-belonged" πνευματος, "(N-GSN)of spirit,"

That's what it says literally in matthew 28.19. literally it reads
Of the of Holy of spirit. but of course every translator changes it to the nominative case. People let translators get away with murder for
millennium.
So, I'm looking this up and here's what I see in both the "Textus Receptus" AND "Morphological GNT":

καί (kai - meaning "and") τοῦ (ho - from the root )ἁγίου(hagios - from the root ἅγιος meaning "of the holy") πνεύματος (pneuma - from the root πνεῦμα meaning "ghost")

So, it reads: "and of the holy ghost". :)