There are a lot of things written in the bible, that IMO if we're honest, we'll admit that we really don't understand. Here's one that stumps me.
Supposedly, Jesus said no man ascended to heaven except himself (who had not yet ascended to heaven), but he was on earth when he spoke this and not in heaven as the text says. Now did Jesus say this, or was this John speaking from his perspective after the resurrection? At some point in John 3, it is John's words and not Jesus' words, but it's not clear where that point is.
There's actually a textual variant in this verse. This is how it reads in some manuscripts
That removes the difficulty of Jesus being on earth and saying that he is in heaven.
And no man hath ascended up to heaven, but he that came down from heaven, [even] the Son of man which is in heaven. John 3:13
Supposedly, Jesus said no man ascended to heaven except himself (who had not yet ascended to heaven), but he was on earth when he spoke this and not in heaven as the text says. Now did Jesus say this, or was this John speaking from his perspective after the resurrection? At some point in John 3, it is John's words and not Jesus' words, but it's not clear where that point is.
There's actually a textual variant in this verse. This is how it reads in some manuscripts
And no one has ascended into heaven except the one who descended from heaven—the Son of Man. John 3:13
That removes the difficulty of Jesus being on earth and saying that he is in heaven.