Romans 8:1-2, is conditional

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John146

Senior Member
Jan 13, 2016
16,687
3,545
113
#81
so one of you claim it was overused to the point people wrote all over it and changed it and you claim it was not used at all? I guess you guys don't understand that there is a whole number of other writings that agree with this text that was widely spread throughout the Christian world.

"Early remnant" ? I don't even know what you mean by that term? The catholic church ?
God has always had a remnant of His true believers even when the Catholic Church dominated the scene and persecuted the remnant.
 
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eph610

Guest
#82
God has always had a remnant of His true believers even when the Catholic Church dominated the scene and persecuted the remnant.
lemme guess they all had a KJV Bible as well....give me a break already....
 

John146

Senior Member
Jan 13, 2016
16,687
3,545
113
#83
lemme guess they all had a KJV Bible as well....give me a break already....
Nope, that's not what I'm saying, but there was the received text that they used and accepted which we know as the Textus Receptus from Antioch. The Textus Receptus (received text) from which the King James Bible came can be traced clear back to Antioch, Syria, where the disciples were first called Christians and where Paul and Barnabas taught the word of God for a whole year (Acts 11:26). The other "bibles" do not come from Antioch. They come from Alexandria, Egypt, and from Rome. These texts were known by the early remnant to have been corrupted.
 
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eternally-gratefull

Guest
#84
Nope, that's not what I'm saying, but there was the received text that they used and accepted which we know as the Textus Receptus from Antioch. The Textus Receptus (received text) from which the King James Bible came can be traced clear back to Antioch, Syria, where the disciples were first called Christians and where Paul and Barnabas taught the word of God for a whole year (Acts 11:26). The other "bibles" do not come from Antioch. They come from Alexandria, Egypt, and from Rome. These texts were known by the early remnant to have been corrupted.
You were there?

If not All you have is someones word.. Not proof..
 

John146

Senior Member
Jan 13, 2016
16,687
3,545
113
#85
You were there?

If not All you have is someones word.. Not proof..
Why did the early churches of the 2nd and 3rd centuries and all the Protestant Reformers of the 15th, 16th and 17th centuries choose Textus Receptus in preference to the Minority Text? The answer is because:
  • Textus Receptus is based on the vast majority (90%) of the 5000+ Greek manuscripts in existence. That is why it is also called the Majority Text.
  • Textus Receptus is not mutilated with deletions, additions and amendments, as is the Minority Text.
  • Textus Receptus agrees with the earliest versions of the Bible: Peshitta (AD150) Old Latin Vulgate (AD157), the Italic Bible (AD157) etc. These Bibles were produced some 200 years before the minority Egyptian codices favoured by the Roman Church.
  • Textus Receptus agrees with the vast majority of the 86,000+ citations from scripture by the early church fathers.
  • Textus Receptus is untainted with Egyptian philosophy and unbelief.
  • Textus Receptus strongly upholds the fundamental doctrines of the Christian faith: the creation account in Genesis, the divinity of Jesus Christ, the virgin birth, his miracles, his bodily resurrection and literal return.
  • Textus Receptus was - and still is - the enemy of the Roman Church. This is an important fact to bear in mind.
 
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eternally-gratefull

Guest
#86
Why did the early churches of the 2nd and 3rd centuries and all the Protestant Reformers of the 15th, 16th and 17th centuries choose Textus Receptus in preference to the Minority Text? The answer is because:
  • Textus Receptus is based on the vast majority (90%) of the 5000+ Greek manuscripts in existence. That is why it is also called the Majority Text.
  • Textus Receptus is not mutilated with deletions, additions and amendments, as is the Minority Text.
  • Textus Receptus agrees with the earliest versions of the Bible: Peshitta (AD150) Old Latin Vulgate (AD157), the Italic Bible (AD157) etc. These Bibles were produced some 200 years before the minority Egyptian codices favoured by the Roman Church.
  • Textus Receptus agrees with the vast majority of the 86,000+ citations from scripture by the early church fathers.
  • Textus Receptus is untainted with Egyptian philosophy and unbelief.
  • Textus Receptus strongly upholds the fundamental doctrines of the Christian faith: the creation account in Genesis, the divinity of Jesus Christ, the virgin birth, his miracles, his bodily resurrection and literal return.
  • Textus Receptus was - and still is - the enemy of the Roman Church. This is an important fact to bear in mind.
This proves nothing to me, Thats listening to men..

Unless you were there in the 2nd and third century, Your taking mens word for it..
 

know1

Senior Member
Aug 27, 2012
3,071
166
63
#87
These babes in Christ in 1 Corinthians 3:1-3 were behaving in a carnal manner, yet they were still babes IN CHRIST. Certain people interpret Romans 8:1 to mean that there are Christians who are in Christ that will remain in Christ because they walk after the Spirit and not after the flesh and there are Christians who are in Christ that will lose their salvation because they walk after the flesh and not after the Spirit, but I see below (quoting from post #49) that you are not in that camp.
No, praise God, I am not in either camp. The weak and weaselly try or have to fit in with others to be accepted.
And yes, I separated them because of the "and" in between the sin and death.
We all sin, but we don't lose our salvation just because we sinned, we do however lose some protections from curses though.
The bible is ladened with example and warnings of the consequences of sin.
If we walk in the Spirit we will not fulfill the lusts of the flesh, but the righteousness of the law.
When the born again Christians sins, they come under the condemnation of the curses of the law. That is why many Christians get sick and why some die.
BUT, when we repent and confess our sins, God is faithful to forgive us our sins, and to cleanse us of ALL unrighteousness, then restoring us to fellowship with the Father.
At that time, we can ask or claim our healing, and the word of God does it. Most just don't know it was done because they didn't feel anything or any better.
So yes, I firmly believe there is a curse of the law of sin, and a curse of the law of death that we are redeemed from, WHEN we walk in the Spirit.
And yes, I also believe a mature Christian can lose their salvation, but not a baby Christian.
I think the death spoken of is a spiritual death, like the second one, as in eternal separation from God.
 

know1

Senior Member
Aug 27, 2012
3,071
166
63
#88
Why do you turn every thread into a infomercial for the KJV Bible...would you please just STOP IT!?!?!?
Why do you ask this of me?
First off, the KJV Bible is not a bad thing to advocate.
Secondly, I wasn't pushing the KJB, but the received text. And I did that because others tried to say the condemning part in Romans 8:1 was not there in the original text.
 
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eph610

Guest
#89
No, praise God, I am not in either camp. The weak and weaselly try or have to fit in with others to be accepted.
And yes, I separated them because of the "and" in between the sin and death.
We all sin, but we don't lose our salvation just because we sinned, we do however lose some protections from curses though.
The bible is ladened with example and warnings of the consequences of sin.
If we walk in the Spirit we will not fulfill the lusts of the flesh, but the righteousness of the law.
When the born again Christians sins, they come under the condemnation of the curses of the law. That is why many Christians get sick and why some die.
BUT, when we repent and confess our sins, God is faithful to forgive us our sins, and to cleanse us of ALL unrighteousness, then restoring us to fellowship with the Father.
At that time, we can ask or claim our healing, and the word of God does it. Most just don't know it was done because they didn't feel anything or any better.
So yes, I firmly believe there is a curse of the law of sin, and a curse of the law of death that we are redeemed from, WHEN we walk in the Spirit.
And yes, I also believe a mature Christian can lose their salvation, but not a baby Christian.
I think the death spoken of is a spiritual death, like the second one, as in eternal separation from God.
Why do advocate that SIN & curses are more powerful than the finished work of Jesus Christ?
 

know1

Senior Member
Aug 27, 2012
3,071
166
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#90
Yep. All those poor doctors that God gave that great gift too.. We should just ignore tham and not allow God to use them to work in our life. We should just trust God to heal..

Good luck with that.. and you should be careful who you tell. If one of your kids die because you do not take them to the hospital. you could be tried and convicted of murder.. and in my view, rightly so.
"I have said in the past to those who do not have the faith for healing that they should seek the best the natural has to offer, because it is very unlikely that God would heal them."

As you can see in the post you replied to, I already said in that post, if you don't have the necessary faith, to seek medical help.
If you weren't so bent in making belittling sarcastic remarks toward me, you might have seen that.
Even if I don't have the faith for something, I have learned to do the same.
Yes, I have resorted to small things at times, because I know, if I don't have the faith for something, it's not going to happen. And I know when I have faith for something and when I don't.
That goes the same for my family.
I am not the idiot you make me out to be. Far from it.
BUT, when I do have the faith for healing, I get it, without fail.
That's God, faithful to perform His word.
 
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eternally-gratefull

Guest
#91
"I have said in the past to those who do not have the faith for healing that they should seek the best the natural has to offer, because it is very unlikely that God would heal them."

As you can see in the post you replied to, I already said in that post, if you don't have the necessary faith, to seek medical help.
If you weren't so bent in making belittling sarcastic remarks toward me, you might have seen that.
Even if I don't have the faith for something, I have learned to do the same.
Yes, I have resorted to small things at times, because I know, if I don't have the faith for something, it's not going to happen. And I know when I have faith for something and when I don't.
That goes the same for my family.
I am not the idiot you make me out to be. Far from it.
BUT, when I do have the faith for healing, I get it, without fail.
That's God, faithful to perform His word.
I have faith in God.

I have faith God can use doctors to heal my ailment or my children ailment.

Having faith does not mean God will heal. To say someone who is not healed has no faith is wrong, and seriously mocks God. God never promised to heal anyone.

 

know1

Senior Member
Aug 27, 2012
3,071
166
63
#92
Yeah everybody is headed to hell that does not use the KJV Bible :rolleyes:

Why don't you go cuddle up with Jack Chick and leave us alone...
I didn't know I was being a big bad bully.
Nor did I know that I was advocating the KJB. I thought I was talking about the received text.
Can we just stick to the subject of the thread, please?
 

valiant

Senior Member
Mar 22, 2015
8,025
124
63
#93
Why did the early churches of the 2nd and 3rd centuries and all the Protestant Reformers of the 15th, 16th and 17th centuries choose Textus Receptus in preference to the Minority Text? The answer is because:
  • Textus Receptus is based on the vast majority (90%) of the 5000+ Greek manuscripts in existence. That is why it is also called the Majority Text.
  • Textus Receptus is not mutilated with deletions, additions and amendments, as is the Minority Text.
  • Textus Receptus agrees with the earliest versions of the Bible: Peshitta (AD150) Old Latin Vulgate (AD157), the Italic Bible (AD157) etc. These Bibles were produced some 200 years before the minority Egyptian codices favoured by the Roman Church.
  • Textus Receptus agrees with the vast majority of the 86,000+ citations from scripture by the early church fathers.
  • Textus Receptus is untainted with Egyptian philosophy and unbelief.
  • Textus Receptus strongly upholds the fundamental doctrines of the Christian faith: the creation account in Genesis, the divinity of Jesus Christ, the virgin birth, his miracles, his bodily resurrection and literal return.
  • Textus Receptus was - and still is - the enemy of the Roman Church. This is an important fact to bear in mind.
There is not a single MS of Textus Receptus before the 6th century. It quite obviously results from gathering together the various earlier readings.

The churches of 2nd and 3rd century did not use textus receptus. That is wishful thinking. It did not agree with quotations from the early fathers

The Peshita & Vulgate were about 400 ad.!!!!!!!

you live in cloud cuckoo land
 
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know1

Senior Member
Aug 27, 2012
3,071
166
63
#94
Why should I teach you what this means when you cannot even interpret the elementary doctrines.
You should know by now that I wasn't looking for any teaching, but your interpretation of it.
The reason why I point that out is because it defies what you said.
By not responding to my request, you willingly reject the truth of God's word. It is because you know what I said makes sense, and you just don't want to admit it.
So would you care to tell me what 1 Cor 11 is talking about, if it's not about condemnation of the born again believers who ate and drank unworthily?
 

know1

Senior Member
Aug 27, 2012
3,071
166
63
#95
Nope, that's not what I'm saying, but there was the received text that they used and accepted which we know as the Textus Receptus from Antioch. The Textus Receptus (received text) from which the King James Bible came can be traced clear back to Antioch, Syria, where the disciples were first called Christians and where Paul and Barnabas taught the word of God for a whole year (Acts 11:26). The other "bibles" do not come from Antioch. They come from Alexandria, Egypt, and from Rome. These texts were known by the early remnant to have been corrupted.
That is the same history of the text that I read.
Well said, and thank you.
 
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eternally-gratefull

Guest
#97
Willful rejection and ignorance
lol.. Your a laugh..

Were you there??

if history is proof. The catholic church is correct. and we are ALL in error. Because history backs them

So much for your history bud!
 

know1

Senior Member
Aug 27, 2012
3,071
166
63
#98
This proves nothing to me, Thats listening to men..

Unless you were there in the 2nd and third century, Your taking mens word for it..
And whose word are you willingly accepting concerning the codex Vaticanus and Sinaiticus?
God's?
You do understand the word, hypocrite, right?
And you shall know them by their fruit.
 
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eternally-gratefull

Guest
#99
And whose word are you willingly accepting concerning the codex Vaticanus and Sinaiticus?
God's?
You do understand the word, hypocrite, right?
And you shall know them by their fruit.
Actually I do not accept any of them, They all have mistakes

You do know what the word Assume means do you not? You should not assume such things.

I test all of them out, Making sure they align with the message,, The message is one message which will never contradict. If any thing contradicts. it is most likely because of an error in the copied text. or the manuscript used.
 

know1

Senior Member
Aug 27, 2012
3,071
166
63
Why do advocate that SIN & curses are more powerful than the finished work of Jesus Christ?
Because the word of God shows that your forgiveness is not an automatic thing. Neither can you do whatever you want without consequences. It is all through the bible.
You have to repent and then confess that before the Father. That is what is written and the way I understand it.