Why is the word homosexual not found in the KJB? But found in other versions?
But let's look at the actual words in the Greek and English:
1 Cor 6:9
ἢ οὐκ οἴδατε ὅτι ἄδικοι βασιλείαν Θεοῦ οὐ κληρονομήσουσι; μὴ πλανᾶσθε· οὔτε πόρνοι, οὔτε εἰδωλολάτραι, οὔτε μοιχοὶ, οὔτε μαλακοὶ, οὔτε ἀρσενοκοῖται,
Strong's Concordance
arsenokoités: a sodomite
Transliteration: arsenokoitésShort Definition: homosexuals
King James Bible
Know ye not that the unrighteous shall not inherit the kingdom of God? Be not deceived: neither fornicators, nor idolaters, nor adulterers, nor effeminate, nor abusers of themselves with mankind,
One could say that the KJV translators could have used the term "Sodomite" but chose to make it clearer by what they said.
Again in 1 Timothy 1:10 they chose not to use the term "Sodomite".
πόρνοις, ἀρσενοκοίταις, ἀνδραποδισταῖς, ψεύσταις, ἐπιόρκοις, καὶ εἴ τι ἕτερον τῇ ὑγιαινούσῃ διδασκαλίᾳ ἀντίκειται,
King James Bible
For whoremongers, for them that defile themselves with mankind, for menstealers, for liars, for perjured persons, and if there be any other thing that is contrary to sound doctrine;
The only people who have made this an issue is the homosexual community. The terminology in the KJV leaves no room for doubt that it is in fact sodomy that is a sin.
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