Is Speaking in Tongues still available today?

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FollowerofShiloh

FollowerofShiloh

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Jan 24, 2024
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Jimbone said:
You didn't answer my question and avoided my point completely. I was asking if you were saying tongues was NEVER a human language because your comment sure sounded like that, and I had to disagree because there are only 1 or 2 verses that support what you're saying here about tongues being a "unknown language".
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Only Acts 2 shows us tongues was human language one time. Acts 2 also shows us to be baptized in Jesus name and 5 other times the Bible "clearly states" they were baptized in Jesus name. There's no more mention after Acts 2 about tongues being a human language.

Here's the point of the issue. This form of tongues "only happens" when GOD (the Holy Spirit) gives the utterance. It does not happen properly in any other situation. So for it to be genuine and authentic, it must be GOD doing it. If God is doing, it cannot be a human issue. It is God doing it.
 
FollowerofShiloh

FollowerofShiloh

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#382
Jan 24, 2024
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Look at regeneration. At some point in our surrender, God takes over the process.
True speaking in tongues is the same way.
If you read the Bible, all Gifts and things relating to the Holy Spirit is basically done the same way.
God initiates, we yield, God does the rest.
^ That truly is MO/Mode of Operation of the Holy Spirit.

The birth of Jesus. Holy Spirit came to Mary, she yielded, Holy Spirit did rest by overshadowing her.
 
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presidente

Senior Member
#383
May 29, 2013
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FollowerofShiloh said:
That's why I said "a surrendered vessel." Someone who just does it is doing it on their decision not when God gives them the utterance.
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'Let him speak to himself and to God' in v. 28 indicates the utterance is genuine, even though he could speak it in a disorderly manner, when he should not.
 
FollowerofShiloh

FollowerofShiloh

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#384
Jan 24, 2024
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#384
presidente said:
'Let him speak to himself and to God' in v. 28 indicates the utterance is genuine, even though he could speak it in a disorderly manner, when he should not.
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Praying in your thoughts is a wonderful way to do it. When Paul said he spoke in tongues more than anyone else. I would bet praying in his mind was the biggest used method.
 
J

jamessb

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#385
Feb 10, 2024
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#385
Bob-Carabbio said:
Nope, he doesn't. God doesn't "MAKE" anybody do anything. He simply puts His words in a person's mind, and they, of their own free will, speak that which they're given.

The SATANIC GIFT of tongues is compulsive, and out of the person's control.
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Where does it mention the "satanic " gift of tongues? I have never heard of that before.
 
J

jamessb

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#388
Feb 10, 2024
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#388
FollowerofShiloh said:
Only Acts 2 shows us tongues was human language one time. Acts 2 also shows us to be baptized in Jesus name and 5 other times the Bible "clearly states" they were baptized in Jesus name. There's no more mention after Acts 2 about tongues being a human language.

Here's the point of the issue. This form of tongues "only happens" when GOD (the Holy Spirit) gives the utterance. It does not happen properly in any other situation. So for it to be genuine and authentic, it must be GOD doing it. If God is doing, it cannot be a human issue. It is God doing it.
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Tongues in Acts 2 refers to known languages. The gift of tongues is spiritual gift, not a known language.
 
FollowerofShiloh

FollowerofShiloh

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jamessb said:
Tongues in Acts 2 refers to known languages. The gift of tongues is spiritual gift, not a known language.
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I meant only in the situation of Acts 2 could humans understand it. After that no one could.
 
FollowerofShiloh

FollowerofShiloh

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presidente said:
Then why would Paul mention the tongues of men and of angels?
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hyperbole. If the Holy Spirit, Who is God, gives the utterance, it's impossible for Angels to have any part of it. It's strictly what God does from Him to you.

God is the only one who lives in me. Angels serve God for my benefit, not control me nor live inside me. So they could never cause me to speak in tongues.
 
P

presidente

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May 29, 2013
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FollowerofShiloh said:
hyperbole. If the Holy Spirit, Who is God, gives the utterance, it's impossible for Angels to have any part of it. It's strictly what God does from Him to you.

God is the only one who lives in me. Angels serve God for my benefit, not control me nor live inside me. So they could never cause me to speak in tongues.
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I think you are missing the point. He didn't mention angels, or men, make him speak in languages. He wrote about speaking in the languages of men or of angels.
 
FollowerofShiloh

FollowerofShiloh

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presidente said:
I think you are missing the point. He didn't mention angels, or men, make him speak in languages. He wrote about speaking in the languages of men or of angels.
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If God gives the utterance why would it be angel language? It came from God not from angels.

When God told the prophets what to prophesy, were they prophesying angel messages or God's message?
 
FollowerofShiloh

FollowerofShiloh

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jamessb said:
If you used a translation that said "languages" instead of "tongues" in Acts 2, the mystery is resolved.

1611: "tongue" 2024: "language"
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But the oldest and known factual text we have comes from the "2nd century." The kjv comes from the 10th century which is the textus receptus. in the 2nd century text, it uses tongues.
 
FollowerofShiloh

FollowerofShiloh

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#400
2nd century text
4 and they were all filled with the Holy Spirit, and began to speak with other tongues, (as the Spirit) gave them utterance.

Notice, the Spirit "controlled" when they spoke in tongues, not the other way around.

And it specifically states "tongues" not languages.
 
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