I agree with this,
Romans 8:9 But ye are not in the flesh, but in the Spirit, if so be that the Spirit of God dwell in you.
Now if any man have not the Spirit of Christ,
he is none of his.
John 1:13 Which were born, not of blood, nor of the will of the flesh, nor of the will of man,
but of God.
But here, I was curious, would this indicate the possibility of a child in the womb being filled with the Holy Ghost?
Well, even though I know its John (who law and the prophets prophesied till) the messenger sent before the Lord where it says
Luke 1:15 For he shall be great in the sight of the Lord, and shall drink neither wine nor strong drink;
and he shall be filled with the Holy Ghost, even from his mother's womb.
So John would be conceived the ordinary way but be filled with the Holy Ghost from his mothers womb
Luke 1:41 And it came to pass, that, when Elisabeth heard the salutation of Mary, the babe leaped in her womb; and Elisabeth was filled with the Holy Ghost:
Whereas Mary mother of Jesus (he himself conceived not in the ordinary way obviously) but by the Holy Ghost greeted Elisabeth and she was filled herself with the Holy Ghost.
But do you think that could extend beyond the special circumstances of John? I am not too convinced, I thought, well, maybe because of what Paul said, but even though Paul said,
Gal 1:15 But when it pleased God, who separated me from my mother's womb, and called me by his grace, that didnt mean Paul was filled with the Holy Ghost from his mothers womb. Since we see Annanias come to Paul (called Saul then) in Acts 9:17 ... saying, "Brother Saul, the Lord, even Jesus, that appeared unto thee in the way as thou camest, hath sent me, that thou mightest receive thy sight, and be filled with the Holy Ghost".
But then again, even that wouldnt be so odd considering John the baptist who would be filled with the Holy Ghost from the womb but when Jesus come out to be batized by him Mat 3:14-15 But John forbad him, saying, I have need to be baptized of thee, and comest thou to me?
And Jesus answering said unto him, Suffer it to be so now:
for thus it becometh us to fulfil all righteousness.
Then he suffered him.
And I would typically just be distracted more by the fact that Jesus was getting water baptized (for repentance as John put it) and not think twice about John.
What baptism would John speaking of concerning himself? Because Jesus (who was concieved of the Holy Ghost) come out to Johns water baptism (that he be revealed to Israel). But John being already filled with the Holy Ghost (from his mothers womb) and sent by God ahead of Christ also needed to be batized, but which baptism was John talking about?
John had said as he baptized with water for repentance (and taught of one coming after him) that Jesus would baptize with the Holy Ghost and with fire (and we know John was filled with the Holy Ghost already).
You have anything on that perhaps?
God bless